Here is the link with photos for the Frog Dissection

http://us.geocities.com/sciencejanetc/7th_8th_grade/animal_kingdom/frog_dissection.html

Rat Dissection (4th and 6th Period)

Rat Dissection

PowerPoint Presentation, Rats

Back to Lab Schedule

Cool Virtual Dissections Link

Frog Dissection

Frog Dissection

Parts of this lab by E.S. Belasic

Pre-Lab Research:

• Study these websites before you start your dissection. Froguts and Net Frog
• All About Frogs gives all sorts of information on frogs

Objectives:

• to observe the external and internal anatomy of a frog.
• to determine the sex of a frog using internal anatomy.
• to view the body systems : epidermal, muscular, digestive, respiratory, circulatory, urogenital, and skeletal

Procedure:

External Anatomy:

• Sketch the dorsal side of your frog in Fig 1.
• Label the 4 directions : dorsal, ventral, anterior, posterior
• Identify the eyes, which have a non-moveable upper and lower lid, but can be covered with a nictitating membrane which serves to moisten the eye.
• Locate the tympanum behind each eye and label.
• Examine the external nares (nostrils). Insert a probe into the external nares and note that it protrudes from one of the paired small openings, the internal nares inside the mouth cavity.
• Label the tympanic membrane, eye, mouth, and external nares.
• Sketch the ventral side of your frog in Fig 2. Label the 4 directions: dorsal, ventral, anterior, and posterior.
• Which feet are webbed?__________________________
• The sex of a frog may be determined externally by examining the thumb pags on the front feet. The thumb pads of males are enlarged at the base as in the drawing. Determine the sex of your frog. _____________

• Open your frog's mouth very wide, cutting the angles of the jaw if necessary. Are there teeth on the lower jaw, upper jaw or both? _________________
• Identify the tongue attached to the lower jaw's anterior end.
• Find the Eustachian tube opening into the angle of the jaws. These tubes lead to the ears. Eustachian tubes equalize air pressure in the ears.
• Examine the maxillary teeth located along the rim of the upper jaw. Another set of teeth, the vomerine teeth, is present just behind the mid portion of the upper jaw.
• Locate the glottis, a slit through which air passes in and out of the trachea, the short tube from the glottis to the lungs.
• Identify the esophagus. which lies dorsal and posterior to the glottis and leads to the stomach.


• Pin your frog to the pan by placing pins through the 4 limbs


Internal Anatomy: Be Careful : DO NOT CUT TOO DEEPLY!

1. Take your scalpel or scissors and carefully make an incision from the throat to where the legs meet.
2. Make your second incision across the shoulders and across the lower abdomen.
3. Peel back the skin flaps
4. You may remove all the skin on your frog to examine the muscles.
5. Carefully cut through the muscles of the abdomen the same way you made the skin incisions and pin the muscles back.
6. Unlike humans, frogs do not store fat next to the skin. Frogs store fat for winter in fat bodies inside the body cavity. If your frog was collected late in the year, the body cavity may be full of these orange fat bodies. Does your frog have much stored fat?


7. Find the Liver and heart. This is the first layer of organs. How many lobes does the liver have? __________
8. At this point you may also see masses of eggs if you have a female.
9. Push the 3-lobed liver and heart to the left and expose the esophagus running back from the mouth to the large J-shaped stomach and small intestines.. The gall bladder can be seen on the back side of the liver. This is the second layer.
10. Cut the esophagus as close to the mouth as possible.
11. The stomach consists of a large anterior cardiac portion and smaller posterior pyloric portion which ends at the pyloric sphincter. This circular muscle opens and closes the bottom of the stomach.


The first portion of the small intestine, the duodenum is directly below the pyloric sphincter. Posterior to the duodenum lies the elongated and coiled ileum, which in turn, connects with the large intestine. The large intestine is easily identifiable as a marked expansion of the alimentary canal in the posterior region of the body cavity.

The gall bladder is located on the dorsal surface of the right lobe of the liver. The bile duct carries bile from the liver to the duodenum. The spleen is a roughly spherical dark organ which lies in the intestinal mesentery ventral to the kidneys.


12. Cut the large intestine as close to the anus as possible. Both ends of the canal have now been cut. Carefully remove the alimentary canal in one piece. Measure the length of each organ of the alimentary canal in centimeters and record them below.
• Esophagus
• Stomach
• Small intestines
• Large intestines


13. Find and remove the following : stomach, intestine, (yellowish) pancreas, (clear/green) gall bladder
14. Find and remove the following : heart, right and left lungs
15. Find and remove the following: (reddish) spleen, (dark brown) kidneys
16. Find and remove the following: ovaries or testes
17. When you are done, remove as much tissue as you can until the bones are exposed. Try to find the following: humerus, radioulna, femur, tibiofibula Data: (leave a 1/2 page for each figure and table)

Data:

Figure 1: Dorsal view of frog (d, v, a, p)
Figure 2: Ventral view of frog (d, v, a, p)

Figure 3: Musculature : deltoid, pectoralis, rectus abdominis, gastrocnemius

Analysis: Discuss how the organs of a frog are similar to the organs of a human.
Conclusion: 2-3 sentences on what you learned

7th Grade - Chapter 16 ONLINE REVIEW

7th Grade - Chapter 16 ONLINE REVIEW
True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
____ 1. The atmosphere is mostly oxygen.
____ 2. Light energy is used for photosynthesis.
____ 3. Cellular respiration occurs when temperatures cool water vapor in the atmosphere.
____ 4. The nitrogen cycle involves photosynthesis and respiration.
____ 5. Sugar molecules are broken down for energy, which is stored in fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.
Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
____ 6. Environmental factors in an ecosystem include nonliving, or abiotic, factors. _________________________
____ 7. Air is composed mostly of carbon dioxide. _________________________
____ 8. Water is the main ingredient in cell fluids. _________________________
____ 9. Heat energy and light energy determine latitude. _________________________
____ 10. A higher elevation causes temperature to increase. _________________________
____ 11. The motion of air causes currents. _________________________
____ 12. Earth's biosphere contains varying amounts of water, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and other minerals. _________________________
____ 13. The term biotic means “of the earth”. _________________________
____ 14. Nitrogen, as it is found in the air, can be used by plants and animals. _________________________
____ 15. Production of food from chemicals is called photosynthesis. _________________________
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 16. Why does burning fossil fuels create energy?
a.
Burning releases carbon dioxide and smoke.
b.
Fire creates more energy than any other element.
c.
The decayed remains are millions of years old.
d.
They are made of energy-rich, carbon-based molecules.
____ 17. Linda is studying the life of animals in the African plains. She learns how the wildlife depend on one another for survival.

What does the food chain show? Which of these organisms obtains the most energy?
a.
how energy decreases from one organism to another; the consumer
b.
how energy increases from one organism to another; the carnivore
c.
how energy is converted from one organism to another; the herbivore
d.
how energy is transferred from one organism to another; the producer
____ 18. What is the name for a deep crack in the ocean floor through which the heat of molten magma is released, and plants and organisms receive nutrients?
a.
hot spot
b.
hydrothermal vent
c.
magmatic ventilation
d.
volcanic rift
____ 19. Daniel heard a news report on television about global warming. The report showed these two graphs to support its conclusion.

Which statement can be determined by comparing the two graphs?
a.
As carbon dioxide decreases, the earth's temperature decreases.
b.
As carbon dioxide decreases, the earth's temperature increases.
c.
As carbon dioxide increases, the earth's temperature decreases.
d.
As carbon dioxide increases, the earth's temperature increases.
____ 20. Which could happen as a result of humans burning fossil fuels and trees?
a.
Extra carbon dioxide released into the air could cause heat from the sun to be trapped in the atmosphere, and the earth's temperature to rise.
b.
Extra carbon dioxide released into the air could cause the number of molecules in the atmosphere to decrease, causing the earth's temperature to rise.
c.
The increase in carbon dioxide could leave trees without enough oxygen, and they could begin to die.
d.
The increase in carbon dioxide could cause photosynthesis to increase, increasing the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
____ 21. How does temperature change from the base to the peak of a mountain?
a.
The decrease in elevation leads to more precipitation, which cools the molecules in the air and decreases the temperature.
b.
As elevation increases, the atmosphere becomes thinner and molecules cannot generate heat from their close, rapid movement.
c.
As elevation increases, the atmosphere becomes thinner and the sun heats fewer molecules in the air, creating cooler temperatures.
d.
The increase in elevation forces wind currents upward and cools the molecules in the air, creating cooler temperatures.
____ 22. How does the precipitation pattern on one side of a mountain, affect the environmental conditions on the opposite side of the mountain?
a.
Moisture from the sea is blocked by the mountain and cannot reach the other side, leaving it dry and desert-like.
b.
Moisture is lost as precipitation on one side, leaving the other side of the mountain dry and desert-like.
c.
Precipitation only flows down one side of the mountain, leaving the other side dry and desert-like.
d.
Wind currents are blocked by the mountain, and the moisture cannot reach the other side, leaving a desert-like environment.
____ 23. Humus forms from which of the following?
a.
a combination of soil, bacteria, and fungi
b.
a mixture of bacteria, mold, and worms
c.
the remnants of fossils, crushed rock, algae, and fertilizers
d.
the decayed remains of plants, animals, and animal waste
____ 24. Which element is important to all living organisms, but cannot be used directly from the air?
a.
carbon dioxide
b.
hydrogen
c.
nitrogen
d.
oxygen
____ 25. Which process converts light energy into the chemical energy in sugar molecules?
a.
biosynthesis
b.
chemosynthesis
c.
glucose synthesis
d.
photosynthesis
____ 26. Which process produces energy-rich nutrients from chemicals?
a.
biosynthesis
b.
chemosynthesis
c.
hydrosynthesis
d.
photosynthesis
____ 27. What will happen if a farmer only plants and harvests crops of cotton for seven years, without adding fertilizers or other nutrients to the soil? Why?
a.
Over a span of seven years, the use of insecticides specifically needed for cotton crops will make the soil infertile.
b.
Over seven years, natural disasters such as droughts and floods are more likely to occur, leaving the soil with insufficient nutrients.
c.
The soil will lose its nutrients and become infertile because cotton uses more of the soils nutrients than other crops.
d.
The soil will lose its nutrients and become infertile because the crops are harvested instead of left in the field to decay and return nitrogen to the soil.
____ 28. Which processes are involved in the water cycle?
a.
evaporation, condensation, precipitation
b.
evaporation, precipitation, vaporization
c.
evaporation, condensation, respiration
d.
precipitation, transpiration, vaporization
____ 29. Which of the following is a biotic factor?
a.
sunlight
c.
water
b.
worms
d.
climate
____ 30. Which process uses oxygen in plants, algae, and animals?
a.
transpiration
c.
chemosynthesis
b.
photosynthesis
d.
respiration
____ 31. Decaying matter found in soil is called ____.
a.
humus
c.
latitude
b.
consumer
d.
elevation
____ 32. During photosynthesis, light energy becomes ____ energy.
a.
soil life
c.
mechanical
b.
chemical
d.
pyramid
____ 33. Nitrogen is a necessary ingredient of ____.
a.
white blood cells
c.
fats
b.
carbohydrates
d.
proteins
____ 34. Which of the following eats consumers?
a.
carnivore
c.
bacteria
b.
herbivore
d.
fungi
____ 35. Nitrogen in the soil is used by ____.
a.
plants
c.
both a and b
b.
animals
d.
neither a nor b
____ 36. The chemical energy in sugar molecules can be stored or used in which of the following?
a.
carbohydrates
c.
proteins
b.
fats
d.
all of the above
____ 37. Which is a model of feeding relationships?
a.
protein building
c.
food web
b.
food map
d.
sugar molecules
____ 38. As you move upward, from level to level, in an energy pyramid, energy ____.
a.
decreases
c.
stays at the same level
b.
increases
d.
is destroyed
Completion
Complete each statement.
39. ____________________ factors are nonliving.
40. Carbon dioxide is used by plants for _________________________.
41. ____________________ are not capable of photosynthesis.
42. Average weather conditions over time are called ____________________.
43. Respiration ____________________ oxygen and ____________________ carbon dioxide.
44. Nitrogen fixation is performed by ____________________.
45. The bottom layer of an energy pyramid represents ____________________, the first feeding level.
46. Energy is not recycled, but is ____________________ from one form to another.
47. In a food chain, the lowest level of consumers eat ____________________.
48. Overlapping food chains make a food ____________________.
49. average weather conditions over time ____________________
50. environmental factors that include soil, sunlight, and air ____________________
51. organisms that are not capable of photosynthesis ____________________
52. made of overlapping food chains ____________________
53. gas used during photosynthesis ____________________
54. decaying matter found in soil ____________________
55. bacteria in hydrothermal vent communities use this process to produce food ____________________
56. the air that surrounds Earth ____________________
57. a model that shows comparative energy levels for different feeding levels ____________________
58. place where humus is found ____________________
59. An important biological process: ____________________
Correctly complete each sentence by underlining the best of the three choices in parentheses.
60. Plants, algae, animals, and bacteria use oxygen for ____________________ (transpiration, respiration, condensation).
61. Temperature depends on ____________________ (sunlight, rainfall, wind), which depends on latitude.
62. ____________________ (Chemosynthesis, Photosynthesis, Humus) is the production of food without light energy.
Matching
Match the environmental factor with its classification, abiotic or biotic.
a.
abiotic
b.
biotic
____ 63. sunlight
____ 64. mammals
____ 65. water
____ 66. soil
____ 67. temperature
____ 68. bacteria
____ 69. fungi
____ 70. air
____ 71. humus
____ 72. climate
Match the description with the correct item below. Some items may not be used.
a.
latitude
h.
fertilizers
b.
elevation
i.
air
c.
climate
j.
abiotic factors
d.
producers
k.
sugar
e.
nitrogen fixation
l.
water
f.
energy
m.
consumers
g.
biotic factors
____ 73. cell fluids are mostly this compound
____ 74. distance from the equator
____ 75. high energy molecules made from photosynthesis
____ 76. living ecosystem components
____ 77. changing nitrogen gas to usable nitrogen in the soil
____ 78. distance above sea level
____ 79. required for recycling matter
____ 80. the first level of the food chain
____ 81. applied to replace soil nitrogen in crop fields, lawns, and gardens
____ 82. average weather over time
Match the following types of energy with the phrase that best applies.
a.
light energy
d.
high energy sugar
b.
heat energy
e.
sulfur molecules
c.
chemical energy
____ 83. used in photosynthesis
____ 84. stored in sugar molecules
____ 85. used for warmth
____ 86. product of photosynthesis
____ 87. chemosynthesis
Short Answer
88.
Explain the difference between biotic and abiotic factors, providing two or more examples of each.
89.
Maria is going to present a report about weather to her class. How can she describe in three steps the process by which wind is created?
90.
Draw a basic diagram of the water cycle.
91.
Discuss two ways that plants get the nitrogen they need. How do animals get the nitrogen they need?
92.
How do plants and algae use carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere? Discuss two ways CO2 is released into the atmosphere in the carbon cycle.
93.
Describe the relationship between CO2 and oxygen in the process of photosynthesis. How does this benefit both plants and animals?
94.
Draw a basic diagram of a food web. You may use words or pictures.
95.
Choose two abiotic factors in Earth's environment and discuss the role they play in making life possible.
96.
Discuss how oxygen and nitrogen in the air help to make life possible.
97.
Discuss why organisms that live near the equator might be different from those that live near the Earth's poles.
98. Number these food chain steps in the correct order using the blanks provided.
a. omnivores and carnivores
b. producers
c. herbivores
99. Number these gases in order from the one with the greatest amount in the atmosphere to the one with the least amount in the atmosphere.
a. oxygen
b. nitrogen
c. other gases
d. carbon dioxide
100. List the three main components of the water cycle and provide a brief description of each.
101. If nitrogen in the atmosphere is not in a form plants can use, how do they get nitrogen? What is this process called?
102. Why are the numbers of organisms smaller at high levels of an energy pyramid?
103. What types of organisms are found in soil?
104. Explain how soil can be both biotic and abiotic.
105. Using the carbon cycle as an example, explain how Earth's biosphere recycles materials over and over.
106. How could you use a graduated cylinder, a stopper, water, and sunlight to show the fundamentals of the water cycle?
107. Complete the carbon cycle concept map using the correct terms from the chapter.

108. What are the differences between abiotic factors and biotic factors? Give examples of both.
109. In an energy pyramid with three levels (first level producers, second level consumers, and third-level consumers), what percent of the energy from level one (producers) would eventually be transferred to the top level (level three consumers) of organisms?
110. List two biotic components and two abiotic components of soil.
111. What is the potential danger from having too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
112. Explain how temperature is responsible for wind.
Essay
113. Which abiotic factors determine what lives in an environment?
114. Explain how elevation affects temperature.
115. Explain the steps of a food chain. Use examples for each level.
116. Discuss two ways CO2 can be dispensed into the atmosphere.
117. Explain how the process of cellular respiration is important to life processes

6th Grade - Chapter 13 ONLINE REVIEW

6th Grade - Chapter 13 ONLINE REVIEW
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Jennifer is preparing a diagram about plate tectonics.

How should Jennifer label the upper region of the diagram?
a.
lithosphere
b.
mantle
c.
Pangaea
d.
sediment
____ 2. According to the theory of seafloor spreading, what is forced upward through cracks in the seafloor?
a.
granite
b.
magma
c.
steam
d.
water
____ 3. Seafloor spreading creates which type of boundary?
a.
colliding
b.
convergent
c.
divergent
d.
transform
____ 4. What do the rigid plates of the lithosphere move around on?
a.
the asthenosphere
b.
the crust
c.
the mantle
d.
the ocean
____ 5. Steven is looking at a partially completed drawing of two continental plates that are about to collide.

What will happen when the plates collide?
a.
One plate will plunge beneath the other, less dense one.
b.
The plates will both plunge downward, into the mantle.
c.
The crust will be pushed up, forming a mountain range.
d.
The crust will be crushed, forming a broad plain.
____ 6. When is energy released in the form of seismic waves?
a.
when a fault-block mountain experiences erosion
b.
when magma cools and moves deeper into the mantle
c.
when rocks in Earth's crust break and move
d.
when ocean waves strike the shoreline
____ 7. Which of the following are often formed when an ocean plate converges with a continental plate?
a.
magnetic fields
b.
mid-ocean ridges
c.
lithosphere
d.
volcanoes
____ 8. When two plates slide past one another without converging or diverging, which fault occurs?
a.
normal
b.
reverse
c.
rift
d.
strike-slip
____ 9. During World War I, German scientists developed a new way to detect submarines. Building on this technology, scientists working in the 1940s and 1950s used which type of waves to map large areas of the ocean floor?
a.
radiant
b.
radio
c.
seismic
d.
sound
____ 10. Vicente heats a pan of water to boil an egg. As the water warms, it begins to move in a cycle called a convection current. How do scientists think this cycle relates to plate tectonics?
a.
The cycle explains how water cools.
b.
The cycle explains why water boils.
c.
A similar cycle causes plates to move.
d.
A similar cycle causes erosion.
____ 11. The San Andreas Fault in California is part of which type of plate boundary?
a.
colliding
b.
convergent
c.
divergent
d.
transform
____ 12. Which is a result of compression forces acting on plates?
a.
changes in magnetic fields
b.
folding of rock layers
c.
strike-slip faults appear
d.
rift valleys appear
____ 13. Why are earthquakes common at convergent boundaries?
a.
the collision of continental plates
b.
the force of plates being pulled apart
c.
the absence of subduction
d.
the presence of convection currents
____ 14. The youngest rocks on the ocean floor are located ____.
a.
near continents
c.
far from mid-ocean ridges
b.
at mid-ocean ridges
d.
near Asia
____ 15. The crust and upper mantle make up Earth's ____.
a.
lithosphere
c.
core
b.
asthenosphere
d.
continents
____ 16. Scientists have observed that the plates move at rates ranging from 1 cm to 12 cm per ____.
a.
century
c.
day
b.
decade
d.
year
____ 17. Plates of the lithosphere float on the ____.
a.
crust
c.
core
b.
asthenosphere
d.
atmosphere
____ 18. The result of plate movement can be seen at ____.
a.
abyssal plains
c.
plate centers
b.
ocean margins
d.
plate boundaries
____ 19. The ____ are mountains formed by the collision of the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
a.
Alps
c.
Himalaya
b.
Rockies
d.
Appalachians
____ 20. The presence of the same ____ on several continents supports the hypothesis of continental drift.
a.
fossils
c.
neither a nor b
b.
rocks
d.
both a and b
____ 21. The hypothesis that continents have slowly moved to their current locations is called ____.
a.
continental drift
c.
magnetic reversal
b.
continental slope
d.
convection
____ 22. Plates move apart at ____ boundaries.
a.
convergent
c.
divergent
b.
stable
d.
transform
____ 23. The alignment of iron minerals in rocks when they are formed reflects the fact that Earth's ____ has reversed itself several times in the past.
a.
magnetic field
c.
asthenosphere
b.
core
d.
gravity
____ 24. A lack of explanation for continental drift prevented many scientists from accepting that a single supercontinent called ____ once existed.
a.
Glomar
c.
Pangaea
b.
Glossopteris
d.
Wegener
____ 25. The Glomar Challenger provided support for the theory of plate tectonics by providing ____.
a.
high-altitude photos of existing continents
b.
samples of plant life from mid-ocean ridges
c.
samples of older rock found far from mid-ocean ridges
d.
direct measurements of the movement of continents
____ 26. Plates slide past one another at ____.
a.
subduction zones
c.
convection currents
b.
transform boundaries
d.
divergent boundaries
____ 27. The boundary between two plates moving together is called a ____.
a.
divergent boundary
c.
transform boundary
b.
convergent boundary
d.
lithosphere
____ 28. Seafloor spreading occurs because ____.
a.
new material is being added to the asthenosphere
b.
earthquakes break apart the ocean floor
c.
sediments accumulate at the area of spreading
d.
molten material beneath Earth's crust rises to the surface
____ 29. While studying the ocean floor, scientists found ____ bands of magnetism.
a.
plastic
c.
no
b.
alternating
d.
rectangular
____ 30. Continental drift states that continents have moved ____ to their current location.
a.
vertically
c.
quickly
b.
slowly
d.
very little
____ 31. Wegener believed that the continents originally broke apart about ____ years ago.
a.
200 million
c.
400 million
b.
300 million
d.
500 million
____ 32. A fossil plant that helps support the theory of continental drift is ____.
a.
Mesosaurus
c.
Glomar
b.
Glossopteris
d.
Pangaea
____ 33. Matching ____ on different continents are evidence for continental drift.
a.
river systems
c.
weather patterns
b.
rock structures
d.
wind systems
____ 34. Bands of rock on the seafloor showing alternating magnetic orientation indicate Earth's magnetic field has ____.
a.
reversed itself in the past
c.
become stronger
b.
weakened
d.
remained the same
____ 35. A ____ is a sensitive device used to detect magnetic fields on the seafloor.
a.
seismometer
c.
Glomar
b.
geologist's compass
d.
magnetometer
____ 36. ____ currents inside Earth might drive plate motion.
a.
Vertical
c.
Horizontal
b.
Convection
d.
none of the above
____ 37. Scientists believe that differences in ____ cause hot, plasticlike rock in the asthenosphere to rise toward Earth's surface.
a.
density
c.
weight
b.
magnetism
d.
composition
____ 38. In order to complete a convection current, the rising material must eventually ____ Earth.
a.
stop inside
c.
sink back into
b.
cool
d.
warm
____ 39. The Great Rift Valley in Africa is a ____.
a.
mid-ocean ridge
c.
convergent boundary
b.
divergent boundary
d.
transform boundary
____ 40. The Andes mountain range of South America was formed at a ____.
a.
convergent boundary
c.
hot spot
b.
divergent boundary
d.
transform boundary
____ 41. Active volcanoes are most likely to form at ____.
a.
transform boundaries
b.
divergent boundaries
c.
the center of continents
d.
convergent oceanic-continental boundaries
____ 42. ____ are formed when two continental plates collide.
a.
Volcanoes
c.
Mountain ranges
b.
Strike-slip faults
d.
Rift valleys
____ 43. The ____ is (are) an example of a transform boundary.
a.
Appalachian Mountains
c.
Mid-Atlantic Ridge
b.
Himalaya
d.
San Andreas Fault
____ 44. A ____ forms where two oceanic plates collide.
a.
hot spot
c.
transform boundary
b.
subduction zone
d.
rift valley

Figure 10-1
____ 45. According to Figure 10-1, what type of plate boundary occurs between the North American Plate and the Eurasian Plate?
a.
transform boundary
b.
divergent boundary
c.
convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary
d.
convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary
____ 46. According to Figure 10-1, what type of plate boundary occurs between the Nazca Plate and the South American Plate?
a.
convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary
b.
convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary
c.
convergent continental-continental plate boundary
d.
transform boundary
____ 47. The seafloor spreading theory was proposed by ____
a.
Alfred Wegener.
c.
Abraham Ortelius.
b.
Harry Hess.
d.
Carl Sagan.
____ 48. As Earth's plates move apart at some boundaries, they collide at others, forming ____
a.
mountains and volcanoes.
c.
strike-slip faults.
b.
ocean basins.
d.
both a and b.
____ 49. The youngest rocks in the ocean floor are located at the mid-ocean ____
a.
volcanoes.
c.
trenches.
b.
basins.
d.
ridges.
____ 50. The results of plate movement can be seen at ____
a.
rift valleys.
c.
plate centers.
b.
plate boundaries.
d.
both a and b.
____ 51. The ____ are forming where the Indo-Australian plate collides into the Eurasian plate.
a.
Andes Mountain Range
c.
Himalayas
b.
Rocky Mountains
d.
Appalachian Mountains
____ 52. The presence of the same ____ on several continents supports the idea of continental drift.
a.
fossils
c.
neither a nor b
b.
rocks
d.
both a and b
____ 53. Continental drift occurs because of ____
a.
seafloor spreading.
c.
magnetic reversal.
b.
Pangaea.
d.
earthquakes.
____ 54. The cycle of heating, rising, cooling, and sinking is called a ____
a.
subduction zone.
c.
convection current.
b.
convergent boundary.
d.
conduction current.
____ 55. Oceanic plates are pushed down into the upper mantle in ____
a.
convection currents.
c.
strike-slip faults.
b.
subduction zones.
d.
divergent boundaries.
____ 56. The hypothesis that continents have moved slowly to their current locations is called ____
a.
continental drift.
c.
magnetism.
b.
continental slope.
d.
convection.
____ 57. Plates move apart at ____ boundaries.
a.
convergent
c.
divergent
b.
transform
d.
magnetic
____ 58. Ocean floor rocks are ____ continental rocks.
a.
more eroded than
c.
younger than
b.
older than
d.
the same age as
____ 59. The alignment of iron-bearing minerals in rocks when they formed reflects the fact that Earth's ____ has reversed itself several times in its past.
a.
magnetic field
c.
asthenosphere
b.
core
d.
gravity
____ 60. The lack of an explanation for continental drift prevented many scientists from believing a single supercontinent called ____ once existed.
a.
Glomar
c.
Pangaea
b.
Glossopteris
d.
Mesosaurus
____ 61. Scientists aboard the Glomar Challenger added to the evidence for the theory of seafloor spreading by providing ____
a.
high altitude photos of existing continents.
b.
samples of plant life from different locations.
c.
samples of rock from different locations.
d.
direct measurements of the movement of continents.
____ 62. Where plates slide past one another, ____ occur.
a.
volcanoes
c.
island arcs
b.
earthquakes
d.
ocean trenches
____ 63. The places between plates moving together are called ____
a.
divergent boundaries.
c.
strike-slip faults.
b.
convergent boundaries.
d.
lithospheres.
____ 64. Seafloor spreading occurs because ____
a.
new material is being added to the asthenosphere.
b.
earthquakes break apart the ocean floor.
c.
sediments accumulate on the ocean floor.
d.
hot, less-dense material below Earth's crust is forced upward toward the surface.
____ 65. Studying the ocean floor, scientists found rocks showing magnetic ____
a.
weakening.
c.
bonds.
b.
reversal.
d.
poles.
Completion
Complete each statement.
66. plasticlike layer of Earth's surface below the lithosphere ____________________
67. cycle of heating, rising, cooling, and sinking ____________________
68. theory that states that Earth's crust and upper mantle are broken into sections, which move around on a special layer of the mantle ____________________
69. area where an oceanic plate goes down into the mantle ____________________
70. plate boundary that occurs when two plates slide past one another ____________________
71. place where two plates move together ____________________
72. rigid layer of Earth's surface made up of the crust and a part of the upper mantle ____________________
73. sensing device that detects magnetic fields, helping to confirm seafloor spreading ____________________
74. one large landmass hypothesized to have broken apart about 200 million years ago into continents ____________________
75. hypothesis that the continents have moved slowly to their current locations ____________________
76. boundary between two plates that are moving apart ____________________
77. sections of Earth's crust and upper mantle ____________________
78. largest layer of Earth's surface, composed mostly of silicon, oxygen, magnesium, and iron ____________________
79. outermost layer of Earth's surface ____________________
80. where rocks on opposite sides of a fault move in opposite directions or in the same direction at different rates ____________________
81. The theory that describes Earth's crust and upper mantle as being broken into sections is called ____________________.
82. The theory of ____________________ was shown to be correct by age evidence and magnetic clues.
83. ____________________, occurring in the mantle, are thought to be the force behind plate tectonics.
84. Earth's plasticlike layer is the ____________________.
85. Earth's ____________________ move around on a special layer of the mantle.
86. The main lines of evidence for ____________________ are fossil, rock, and climate clues, and the theory of seafloor spreading.
87. The rigid part of the plates of the ____________________ are made of oceanic crust or continental crust and upper mantle.
88. The name ____________________ means “all land.”
Matching
Match each term with the correct statement below.
a.
seafloor
c.
continents
b.
Pangaea
d.
lithosphere
____ 89. Alfred Wegener believed that the ______ were once joined.
____ 90. The name ______ comes from two words that mean "all land."
____ 91. The Glomar Challenger gathered information about rocks on the _____.
____ 92. The crust and upper mantle make up the _____.
Match each term with the correct statement below.
a.
mid-ocean ridge
d.
subduction zone
b.
convergent boundary
e.
continental drift
c.
asthenosphere
____ 93. Earth's thick, plasticlike layer is the _____.
____ 94. Plates move together at a(n) _____.
____ 95. One plate is forced under another in a(n) _____.
____ 96. A(n) _____ is an underwater mountain chain.
____ 97. The main points of evidence for _____ are fossils, rocks, and climate.
Short Answer
98.
What evidence supports Alfred Wegener's theory of continental drift?
99.
Changes in Earth's magnetic field are preserved in rock forming on both sides of mid-ocean ridges. Why does this support the theory of seafloor spreading?
100.
What is the difference between a convergent and a divergent plate boundary?
101.
In what direction does warmer material move in a convection current?
102.
Why did Alfred Wegener believe that all of the continents once had been joined?
103.
Why are there few volcanoes in the Himalaya?
104.
Glacial deposits often form at a high latitude near the poles. Explain why glacial deposits have been found in Africa.
105.
How were the Andes mountain range, the Himalayas, and the Appalachian Mountains similarly formed?
106.
How were the Andes mountain range and the Himalayas formed differently?
107.
Explain how research from the Glomar Challenger helped scientists support the theory of seafloor spreading.
108.
Figure 10-2 shows the puzzlelike fit of South America and Africa. Explain some of the other evidence used to support the hypothesis of continental drift.
\
Figure 10-2
109.
What new technology was used to map the seafloor beginning in the 1940s and 1950s?
110.
How does a mid-ocean ridge form?
111. Study the following diagram. Then label the parts of Earth's surface.

112. Compare and contrast divergent, convergent, and transform plate boundaries.
113. Describe how convection currents might be the cause of plate tectonics.
114. Why are new ideas often rejected, and what is needed before new ideas should be accepted?
115. What is the difference between a convergent and a divergent plate boundary?
116. What happens to warmer material in a convection current?
117. What observation led Albert Wegener to develop the hypothesis of continental drift?
118. Which part of Earth's structure is about 100 km thick?
119. How were the Andes Mountain Range, the Himalayas, and the islands of Japan formed in the same way?
120. How were the Andes Mountain Range, the Himalayas, and the islands of Japan formed differently?
121. What causes new material to form at a mid-ocean ridge on the ocean floor?
122. Why are there few volcanoes in the Himalayas?
123. Glacial deposits often form at a high latitude near the poles. Explain why glacial deposits have been found in Africa.
124. Why would the fossil of an ocean fish found on two different continents NOT be good evidence of continental drift?
Essay
125. Explain how research from the Glomar Challenger helped scientists support the theory of seafloor spreading.
126. Since new crust is constantly being added, why does Earth's

6th Grade - Chapter 11 Online Review

6th Grade - Chapter 11 Online Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which describes the surface processes that break down rock?
a.
breakdown
b.
climate
c.
gravity
d.
weathering
____ 2. What two types of weathering shape Earth's surface?
a.
ice wedging and sand
b.
magnetite and climate
c.
mechanical and chemical
d.
oxidation and silt
____ 3. Bill is creating a poster about soil formation.

What other factor affects soil formation?
a.
carbon dioxide
b.
fertilizer
c.
gravity
d.
type of vegetation
____ 4. Suzanne needs good soil for her new garden. Equal amounts of what two materials make up the good-quality soil she needs?
a.
granite and weathered silt material
b.
humus and weathered rock material
c.
nodules of hard rock and clay
d.
weathered sand material and clay
____ 5. What occurs when rocks are broken apart by physical processes?
a.
chemical weathering
b.
fragment weathering
c.
mechanical weathering
d.
radiant weathering
____ 6. At a plant nursery, Lori learned that her favorite flower grows best in soil with a pH balance of 7. What kind of pH balance does this soil have?
a.
equal
b.
negative
c.
neutral
d.
positive
____ 7. While on a vacation, Miguel notices some rocks that have a reddish color. What might explain the color of the rocks?
a.
acidic soil
b.
climate
c.
mechanical weathering
d.
oxidation
____ 8. Sean is looking at a place where a nearby highway cuts through some hills. He is particularly curious about the level of soil that seems to consist of partially weathered rock. What horizon is Sean looking at?
a.
A horizon
b.
B horizon
c.
C horizon
d.
D horizon
____ 9. Which type of soil structure has small peds due to mixing by earthworms, frost, and rodents?
a.
blocky
b.
granular
c.
platy
d.
prismatic
____ 10. Kathy's class has been learning about soil. Kathy has almost completed a sheet about topsoil.

What is another characteristic of topsoil?
a.
consists almost entirely of sand
b.
holds water well
c.
lasts longer if overgrazed
d.
quickly erodes if no-till farming is used
____ 11. Why is soil on steep slopes often poorly developed?
a.
Almost all the good material stays near the top of the slope.
b.
Material moves downhill before it can be weathered.
c.
Poor material tends to stay near the bottom of steep slopes.
d.
Water tend to move toward the bottom of steep slopes.
____ 12. Why can overgrazing damage soil?
a.
Animals' feet damage the soil.
b.
It increases moisture in the soil.
c.
Soil is carried away by wind.
d.
Trees cannot grow where animals graze.
____ 13. Soil is a mixture of weathered rock, mineral fragments, water, air and ____.
a.
sand
c.
moss
b.
decayed organic matter
d.
clay
____ 14. The layer of soil that contains the most organic material is called the ____ horizon.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
____ 15. All of the following cause mechanical weathering EXCEPT ____.
a.
ice
c.
burrowing animals
b.
tree roots
d.
carbonic acid
____ 16. Litter often covers the ____ horizon.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
all of the above
____ 17. Chemical weathering is more rapid in a ____ climate.
a.
warm, dry
c.
cold, dry
b.
warm, wet
d.
cold, wet
____ 18. Mechanical weathering is more rapid in a ____ climate.
a.
dry
c.
cold
b.
hot
d.
humid
____ 19. Soil erosion can be slowed by ____.
a.
no-till farming
c.
plowing at least three times a year
b.
cutting trees from the middle of fields
d.
farming on steeper slopes
____ 20. The organic matter in humus is made of ____.
a.
dead worms
c.
roots
b.
stems
d.
all of the above
____ 21. The rate of weathering depends upon the area's ____.
a.
oxygen
c.
water
b.
climate
d.
soil
____ 22. The rock and mineral fragments in soil come from rock that has been ____.
a.
blasted
c.
weathered
b.
carved
d.
chemically treated
____ 23. On steep slopes and mountains, ____ helps reduce erosion by creating level areas for crops.
a.
a shelter belt
c.
mulching
b.
strip cropping
d.
terracing
____ 24. The difference between mechanical and chemical weathering is ____.
a.
the length of time each takes to break up a rock
b.
that only chemical weathering involves water
c.
the way they affect the makeup of a rock
d.
all of the above
____ 25. Soils in ____ contain little organic material and are thin.
a.
tropical areas
c.
prairies
b.
deserts
d.
temperate forests
____ 26. Plants cannot grow without ____.
a.
rocks
c.
moss
b.
soil
d.
pesticides
____ 27. ____ regions are especially vulnerable to erosion because their soils are useful to farmers for only a few years before their nutrients are gone.
a.
Desert
c.
Mountain
b.
Tropical
d.
Prairie
____ 28. The mass of clay, silt, sand, and boulders that covers much of the United States was deposited by ____.
a.
farming
c.
ice wedging
b.
glaciers
d.
huge bulldozers
____ 29. Ice wedging is brought about by ____.
a.
carbonic acid freezing on rocks
c.
water freezing and thawing
b.
water and oxygen reacting
d.
rocks colliding with each other
____ 30. Minerals found in the B horizon were dissolved in water and carried there by a process called ____.
a.
oxidation
c.
weathering
b.
leaching
d.
littering
____ 31. Oxidation occurs when materials containing ____ are exposed to oxygen and water.
a.
iron
c.
kaolinite
b.
carbonic acid
d.
all of the above
____ 32. In bottomlands where water is plentiful, soil is often ____.
a.
thin
c.
thick
b.
rocky
d.
light
____ 33. The B horizon is ____.
a.
rockier than the C horizon
c.
lighter than the A horizon
b.
richer in humus than the A horizon
d.
thinner than the C horizon
____ 34. Plants don't grow as well when ____ has been lost.
a.
clay
c.
parent rock
b.
topsoil
d.
slope
____ 35. ____ is a factor that affects soil development.
a.
Time
c.
Type of rock
b.
Slope
d.
all of the above
____ 36. The ____ horizon has smaller rock and mineral particles than the other layers.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
____ 37. Below the C horizon is ____.
a.
topsoil
c.
clay
b.
rock
d.
humus
____ 38. In wet climates, granite weathers more slowly than ____.
a.
marble
c.
kaolinite
b.
feldspar
d.
calcite
____ 39. Mechanical weathering ____.
a.
breaks apart rocks by physical processes
b.
occurs when chemical reactions dissolve or change the minerals in rocks
c.
occurs when iron is exposed to oxygen and water
d.
none of the above
____ 40. Chemical weathering ____.
a.
is caused by freezing and thawing
b.
breaks apart rocks by physical processes
c.
occurs when chemical reactions dissolve or change the minerals in rocks
d.
none of above
____ 41. In areas where freezing and thawing occur frequently, rocks weather rapidly because of the ____ of freezing water.
a.
evaporation
c.
leaching
b.
expansion
d.
oxidation
____ 42. When water mixes with carbon dioxide gas in the air or soil, ____ forms.
a.
carbonic acid
c.
calcite
b.
lactic acid
d.
oxygen
____ 43. At construction sites, workers often reduce erosion by ____.
a.
covering exposed ground
c.
planting trees
b.
spraying water on bare soil
d.
none of the above
____ 44. Because desert soils contain little organic material, their soil profiles have ____ horizons.
a.
thick
c.
thin
b.
no
d.
b or c
____ 45. ____ turns and loosens soil, improving it for crops, but leaving soil vulnerable to erosion.
a.
Grazing
c.
Plowing
b.
No-tilling farming
d.
Terracing
____ 46. Soil erosion occurs ____.
a.
where animals eat away all the plants
c.
on steep slopes
b.
when forests are removed
d.
all of the above
____ 47. When farmers leave plant stalks in the field to reduce soil erosion, it is called ____.
a.
contour farming
c.
no-till farming
b.
plowing
d.
terracing
____ 48. Soil is a mixture of weathered rock and ____.
a.
water and air
c.
mineral fragments
b.
decayed organic matter
d.
all of these
____ 49. The layer of soil that contains more humus and smaller rock and mineral particles than the other layers is the ____ horizon.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
____ 50. All of the following are direct causes of mechanical weathering except ____.
a.
ice
c.
water
b.
tree roots
d.
oxygen
____ 51. Over thousands of years, ____ has chemically weathered limestone, creating caves.
a.
kaolinite clay
c.
oxidation
b.
carbonic acid
d.
sediment
____ 52. Chemical weathering is more rapid in a ____ climate.
a.
dry
c.
cold
b.
tropical
d.
moderate
____ 53. Mechanical weathering is more rapid in a ____ climate.
a.
dry
c.
cold
b.
tropical
d.
moderate
____ 54. When livestock eat all the grass on the land, the land is said to be ____.
a.
overgrazed
c.
weathered
b.
leached
d.
all of these
____ 55. The organic material in humus includes ____.
a.
plant leaves and stems
c.
sand
b.
weathered rocks
d.
air
____ 56. How fast weathering occurs depends on the ____ of an area.
a.
oxygen
c.
water
b.
climate
d.
vegetation
____ 57. In no-till farming, plant stalks are ____.
a.
destroyed
c.
left in the field
b.
covered with water
d.
plowed under
____ 58. Compared to the A horizon in a soil profile, the B horizon ____.
a.
is lighter in color
b.
contains material leached from the A horizon
c.
contains less humus
d.
all of these
____ 59. The difference between mechanical and chemical weathering is ____.
a.
the length of time each takes to break up rock
b.
that each occurs in different parts of the world
c.
only one changes the chemical composition of a rock
d.
that only chemical weathering involves water
____ 60. Soil horizons in deserts are ____ than soil horizons in wetter climates.
a.
thicker
c.
darker
b.
thinner
d.
more fertile
____ 61. Forest harvesting creates the most severe problems in ____ regions.
a.
desert
c.
urban
b.
tropical
d.
mountain
____ 62. Agricultural practices that slow soil erosion include ____.
a.
planting shelter belts of trees
b.
plowing
c.
allowing livestock to graze wherever they want
d.
leaving soil open to rain
____ 63. Causes of soil erosion include ____.
a.
wind
c.
removal of vegetation
b.
water
d.
all of these
____ 64. Ice wedging is caused by ____.
a.
acid freezing on rocks
c.
water freezing and thawing
b.
water and oxygen reacting
d.
all of these
____ 65. The minerals found in the B and C horizons were dissolved in water and carried down to those soil layers by a process called ____.
a.
oxidation
c.
weathering
b.
leaching
d.
precipitation
____ 66. Oxidation requires a combination of three things: ____.
a.
iron, oxygen, and water
c.
rock, oxygen, and water
b.
iron, carbon dioxide, and water
d.
acid, iron, and oxygen
____ 67. An area's climate is its ____.
a.
high and low temperatures
c.
pattern of weather over many years
b.
annual rainfall
d.
daily weather over the last year
The following questions are based on a soil profile.
____ 68. The B horizon is ____.
a.
darker than A
c.
lighter than A
b.
darker than C
d.
lighter than C
____ 69. The A horizon is high in ____.
a.
clay
c.
rocks
b.
organic materials
d.
leached materials
____ 70. Leaching occurs mainly in the ____ horizon.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
____ 71. Weathering occurs most rapidly in the ____ horizon.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
____ 72. Below the C horizon is ____.
a.
humus
c.
clay
b.
rock
d.
more soil
____ 73. The ____ horizon consists mostly of parent rock.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
Completion
Complete each statement.

Figure 7-1
74. The correct labels for the numbers in Figure 7-1 are (1) ____________________, (2) ____________________, and (3) ____________________.
75. The three horizons in Figure 7-1 make up a soil ____________________.
76. The ____________________ horizon in Figure 7-1 contains the most humus.
77. The ____________________ horizon shown in Figure 7-1 is most like the parent material.
78. The most leaching of minerals occurs from the ____________________ horizon into the ____________________ horizon.
79. Topsoil is the ____________________ horizon in Figure 7-1.
80. The ____________________ horizon shown in Figure 7-1 has the least organic matter.
81. Most plant roots grow in the ____________________ horizon.
82. The A horizon may be covered with leaves, twigs, and other organic matter called ____________________.
83. Small pieces of rock such as sand, silt, and clay are called ____________________.
84. ____________________ is the pattern of weather that occurs in a particular area over many years.
85. ____________________ is harmful because plants do not grow well when topsoil has been lost.
86. When farm animals eat the grass on land until there is almost no ground cover, it is called ____________________.
87. ____________________ is made of dead plant and animal matter that has decayed due to bacteria and fungi.
88. Planting along the natural slope of the land to reduce soil erosion is called ____________________.
89. Eroded soil can enter ____________________, causing them to fill up with sediment.
90. all the horizons of a soil ____________________
91. each layer in a soil profile ____________________
92. type of weathering that occurs when reactions dissolve the minerals in rocks ____________________
93. a mixture of weathered rock, decayed organic matter, mineral fragments, water, and air ____________________
94. ice breaking apart a rock ____________________
95. when materials containing iron are exposed to water and oxygen ____________________
96. leaves, twigs, and organic matter that may be changed to humus ____________________
97. decayed organic matter that turns into a dark-colored material ____________________
98. the removal of minerals that have been dissolved in water ____________________
99. weathering that occurs when rocks are broken apart by physical processes ____________________
100. surface processes that work to break down rock ____________________
101. What does weathering create? ____________________
Use the following words to fill in the blanks below. Not all the terms are used.
soil
leaching
terracing
mechanical weathering
carbonic acid
horizon
no-till farming
ice wedging
soil profile
shelter belts
chemical weathering
oxidation
overgrazing
humus
contour farming
102. When unpainted iron lawn furniture sits outside in the rain and begins to rust, ____________________ has occurred.
103. ____________________ has occurred when chemical reactions dissolve the minerals in rocks or change them into different minerals.
104. ____________________ is the process by which water moves minerals down from one soil layer to another.
105. Water freezing and cracking rock and tree roots spreading through rock are examples of _________________________.
106. When weathered rock, decayed organic matter, mineral fragments, water, and air are combined, ____________________ is formed.
107. Mountain peaks, where water freezes and thaws often, are often weathered by ____________________.
108. ____________________ is organic matter made of decayed plants and animals.
109. You can see the different layers of soil that make up a ____________________ on a hillside where the soil and rock have been exposed.
110. Planting along the natural contours of the land on gentle slopes is called ____________________.
111. Leaving plant stalks undisturbed in the field to cover the soil is known as ____________________.
112. Wind erosion of the land can be reduced by planting ____________________ of trees.
Short Answer
113.
Fernando carries out an experiment about soil erosion. With a garden hose he sprays water for 30 seconds on a small pile of sand in his brother's sandbox. The water quickly flattens the pile. He then sprays water on a sloped area of the yard that is sandy, but covered with grass. After 30 seconds, the slope has not changed, and very little sand flows out at the bottom of the slope. What has Fernando demonstrated?
114.
In what ways do burrowing animals affect soil?

Figure 7-2
115.
In Figure 7-2, which picture shows ice wedging: A, B, or C?
116.
In Figure 7-2, which picture shows weathering that involves carbonic acid: A, B, or C?
117.
In Figure 7-2, are the animal burrows in B an example of chemical or mechanical weathering?
118.
Describe the factors that influence the development and type of soil in a certain area.
119.
What human activities lead to soil erosion?
120.
Name three things farmers can do to reduce soil erosion.
121. How does climate affect the rate of weathering of rocks?
122. List five factors that affect the type of soil in a particular area.
123. What would happen to life on Earth if there were no soil?
124. What farming activities have contributed to soil loss? How can farmers prevent this loss?
125. Describe each of the three soil layers in a soil profile.
Choose Cause or Effect for each pair of sentences below. Then combine the two sentences to make one sentence that shows the cause-and-effect relationship.
126. ____________________ Wedges form and the rock breaks apart.
____________________ Plants grow into cracks in rocks.
127. ____________________ Wind and water are able to carry away the topsoil.
____________________ Cattle eat all the grass on the land.
128. ____________________ The area has a rainy climate and a lot of plants.
____________________ The soil is rich with humus.
129. List the steps in soil development.
130. Explain two ways to reduce soil erosion on slopes.
Essay
131.
In what ways can people prevent soil erosion?
132. Why is weathering important?

7th Grade - Chapter 9 ONLINE REVIEW

7th Grade - Chapter 9 ONLINE REVIEW
True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
____ 1. Fossils most often form when a dead organism is buried in sediments.
____ 2. Carbon films are formed when a thin film of carbon is left, forming a silhouette of the original organism.
____ 3. Dinosaur footprints are original remains.
____ 4. To be a useful index fossil, a species must have been rare.
____ 5. Nonconformities occur when sedimentary rocks are deposited on top of uplifted and eroded metamorphic or igneous rocks.
____ 6. Radiocarbon dating would be useful in dating the age of Earth.
____ 7. Index fossils are the remains of species that existed on Earth for relatively short periods of time.
____ 8. Absolute age examines the position of rocks in a sequence.
____ 9. A fossil may tell a geologist when, where, and how an organism lived.
____ 10. An era is the longest subdivision of geologic time.
____ 11. The soft parts of organisms are most likely to become fossils.
____ 12. Trilobites are used as index fossils.
____ 13. Only a radioactive isotope will have a half-life.
____ 14. Any fossil can be dated by the amount of carbon-14 it contains.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 15. A paleontologist finds the original remains of an organism. Which of the following are original remains?
a.
the cast or mold of a seashell
b.
trails and burrows in sediment
c.
tracks in mud that harden into rock
d.
an insect preserved in amber
____ 16. A scientist finds a crinoid fossil in a desert. What can the scientist conclude from this find?
a.
The desert used to have tropical plants.
b.
The area was once covered by a shallow sea.
c.
The desert was once icy and wintry.
d.
The area had very few organisms living there in the past.
____ 17. Trilobites developed different characteristics over geologic time. What can geologists learn from these changes?
a.
why the climate changed many times over the eons
b.
how trilobites responded to changes in their environments
c.
where different types of trilobites lived in ancient times
d.
what kinds of organisms lived when trilobites lived
____ 18. Denise is writing a report about unconformities. How do unconformities develop?
a.
Animals die and are covered by sediment.
b.
Glaciers scrape away rock layers.
c.
The climate in the area changes dramatically.
d.
Mineral deposits turn sediment into rock.
____ 19. Which of the following organisms has the best chance of becoming a fossil?
a.
a very small organism
b.
an organism with hard parts
c.
a very large organism
d.
an aquatic organism
____ 20. Deon wants to study a more recent geologic time period.

Which of the following should he read about?
a.
Eocene
b.
Holocene
c.
Pliocene
d.
Tertiary
____ 21. How do angular unconformities develop?
a.
Layers of sedimentary rock are tilted and uplifted.
b.
Metamorphic or igneous rock is uplifted and eroded.
c.
Winds blow away layers of sedimentary or igneous rock.
d.
Young rocks form on the eroded surface of old rocks.
____ 22. Garret finds a silhouette of an organism on a rock. Which type of fossil did Garret find?
a.
carbon film
b.
cast
c.
mineral replacement
d.
mold
____ 23. Ramona reads that organisms become more complex over the course of geologic time.

Based on this information, which eon took place most recently?
a.
Archean
b.
Phanerozoic
c.
pre-Archean
d.
Proterozoic
____ 24. Which subdivision of geologic time spans the greatest number of years?
a.
eon
b.
epoch
c.
era
d.
period
____ 25. A paleontologist looks at a fossil to study the eyes of a trilobite. The trilobite has eyes toward the front of its head. What can the paleontologist conclude from this fact?
a.
The trilobite crawled along the sea floor.
b.
The trilobite lived underground.
c.
The trilobite swam in the water.
d.
The trilobite burrowed into the sediment.
____ 26. A geologist determines the relative age of a section of rock. What does the relative age tell the scientist?
a.
how many millions of years old the rock is
b.
what organisms lived in or near the rock
c.
how old the rock is compared to nearby rocks
d.
what unconformities developed in the rock
____ 27. A hiker in the desert finds a set of dinosaur tracks. What type of fossil did the hiker find?
a.
carbon film
b.
mineral replacement
c.
original remains
d.
trace fossils
____ 28. All of the following conditions help preserve organisms as fossils EXCEPT ____.
a.
quick burial by sediments
c.
protection from scavengers
b.
hard parts
d.
activities of microorganisms
____ 29. If the same types of fossils are found in two separate rock layers, it's likely that the two rock layers ____.
a.
formed at different times
c.
formed under different conditions
b.
are part of one continuous deposit
d.
none of the above
____ 30. Determining the order of events and the relative age of rocks by examining the position of rocks in a sequence is called ____.
a.
absolute dating
c.
relative dating
b.
radiometric dating
d.
radiocarbon dating
____ 31. Gaps in rock layers are called ____.
a.
unconformities
c.
half-lives
b.
index fossils
d.
none of the above
____ 32. If the same sequence of rock layers is observed over a large area, ____.
a.
they are probably not related
b.
a large deposit of rock formed over a large area
c.
conditions of formation were probably very different
d.
it is just a coincidence
____ 33. A limestone bed containing fossils that are 550 million years old is ____ a bed of sandstone containing fossils that are 400 million years old.
a.
younger than
c.
older than
b.
the same age as
d.
not related to
____ 34. In a series of undisturbed rock layers where shale lies between sandstone below and limestone above, the ____.
a.
limestone is youngest
c.
sandstone is youngest
b.
shale is youngest
d.
beds are all the same age
____ 35. ____ dating uses the properties of atoms in rocks and other objects to find their ages.
a.
Comparative
c.
Approximate
b.
Absolute
d.
Relative
____ 36. Rock layers are correlated if they both contain the same ____.
a.
elements
c.
fossils
b.
shapes
d.
type of rock
____ 37. If a layer of sandstone lies on top of a layer of limestone in which a 300-million-year-old fossil is found, and there are no unconformities, the layer of sandstone must be ____.
a.
older than 300 million years
c.
about 300 million years old
b.
younger than 300 million years
d.
older than 600 million years
____ 38. With ____ dating, a rock's exact age can be determined, whereas with ____ dating, a rock's age is compared to the ages of other rocks.
a.
absolute, relative
c.
true, absolute
b.
relative, absolute
d.
relative, approximate
Matching
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.
remains
e.
missing layer
b.
fossil
f.
trace
c.
mold
g.
radioactive decay
d.
hard
h.
carbon-14
____ 39. A ______ may tell a geologist when, where, and how an organism lived.
____ 40. A ______ is the cavity left behind in the rock after an organism's hard part has dissolved.
____ 41. Fossils up to 75,000 years old can be dated with ______.
____ 42. The ______ parts of organisms are most likely to become fossils.
____ 43. Fossils are the ______, imprints, or traces of once-living organisms preserved in rock.
____ 44. An unconformity is a ______ of rock.
____ 45. Preserved animal tracks are called ______ fossils.
____ 46. is measured in half-lives
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.
carbonaceous film
g.
index fossils
b.
cast
h.
mold
c.
principle of superposition
i.
uniformitarianism
d.
radiometric dating
j.
radioactive decay
e.
beta decay
k.
relative dating
f.
half-life
l.
unconformities
____ 47. the process in which one of an isotope's neutrons breaks down into a proton and an electron and the electron leaves the atom as a beta particle [beta decay]
____ 48. fossil formed when an outline of the original organism is formed from left-over carbon
____ 49. made when sediments fill in a cavity made when an object decayed and the sediments harden into rock
____ 50. the time it takes for half of the atoms in an isotope to decay
____ 51. fossils of species that lived on Earth for short periods of time and were abundant and were widespread geographically
____ 52. states that for undisturbed rocks, the oldest rocks are on the bottom and the rocks become younger and younger toward the top
____ 53. hollow place in rock made when an organism died and was buried and holes in the rock let air or water reach it and dissolve the organism
____ 54. the process of calculating the absolute age of a rock by measuring the amounts of parent and daughter materials in a rock and by knowing the half-life of the parent
____ 55. a process that uses the properties of atoms in rocks and other objects to find their ages
____ 56. the order of events and the relative age of rocks is determined by examining the position of rocks in a sequence
____ 57. gaps in rock layers that develop when agents of erosion remove existing rock layers
____ 58. states that Earth processes today are similar to those that took place in the past
Match each term with the correct description below.
a.
cast
h.
mold
b.
carbonaceous film
i.
radioactive decay
c.
index fossils
j.
relative dating
d.
fossil
k.
unconformities
e.
half-life
l.
radiometric dating
f.
principle of superposition
m.
uniformitarianism
g.
absolute dating
n.
permineralized remains
____ 59. produced when sediments fill in a cavity made when an object decayed
____ 60. cavity in rock made when an organism decayed
____ 61. principle that Earth's processes occurring today are similar to those that occurred in the past
____ 62. process that uses the properties of atoms in rocks and other objects to determine their ages
____ 63. states that in a sequence of undisturbed rocks, the oldest rocks are on the bottom and the rocks become progressively younger toward the top
____ 64. gaps in rock records made when agents of erosion remove existing rock layers
____ 65. method by which a geologist can calculate the absolute age of the rock by knowing the half-life of an isotope
____ 66. time it takes for half of an isotope's atoms to decay
____ 67. three-lobed organism that inhabited Earth's oceans for more than 200 million years
____ 68. formed when original materials in skeletal remains are replaced by minerals
____ 69. the division of Earth's history based on types of life-forms living during certain periods
____ 70. remains, imprints, or traces of once-living organisms
____ 71. process that occurs when the number of protons in an atom is changed and a new element is formed
____ 72. fossils of species that existed for short periods and were widespread
Short Answer
73.
A paleontologist wants to search for fossils in the oldest rocks of a canyon. Describe where the paleontologist would most likely find the oldest rocks.
74.
Carla is learning about index fossils. How are index fossils helpful to geologists?

Figure 13-1
75.
List events A-F shown in Figure 13-1 in the order that they occurred, beginning with the oldest event.
76.
When did the fault in Figure 13-1 occur?
77.
If horizontal layers of sedimentary rock have a vertical fault running through them, how might a geologist use relative dating to determine when the fault occurred?
78.
Do all rocks contain fossils? Describe the conditions necessary for fossils to form.
79.
Explain what is meant by correlating rock layers.
80.
Explain what the term half-life means and how knowing the half-life of an element can help a geologist establish the age of a rock or fossil.
81. Complete the chart to describe different types of fossils.
Type of fossil
Description
1. Permineralized remains

2. Carbon film

3. Mold

4. Cast

5. Trace fossils

6. Index fossils

82. Explain what the concept of uniformitarianism means.
83. What units divide the geologic time scale?
84. Explain how a dead organism may become a fossil.
85. Complete the concept map below by writing the conditions for fossil formation and the types of fossils in the circles.

86. What is the difference between relative and absolute dating?
Study the figure of the rock record. Then answer the following questions.

87. List events A-F in the order they occurred, beginning with the oldest event.
88. When did the fault occur?
89. Complete the table below to show the amounts of parent and daughter materials left of a radioactive element after three half-lives if the original parent had a mass of 80 g.
Number of half-lives
Parent material
Daughter product
1.


2.


3.


Problem
90.
A sample of a radioactive element has a mass of 80 g. How much parent and daughter materials are in the sample after two half-lives?

Figure 13-2
91.
According to Figure 13-2, if 25 percent of the parent material remains in a rock sample, how many half-lives have occurred?
92.
Refer to Figure 13-2 and determine how much parent material will be left after five half-lives.
Essay
93. If horizontal layers of sedimentary rock have a vertical fault running through them, how might a geologist use relative dating to determine when the fault occurred?
94. Explain how a trace fossil can provide information on how an organism lived.
95. Explain what is meant by correlating rock layers.
96. Do all rocks contain fossils? Describe the conditions necessary for fossils to form.
97. Explain what the term half-life means and how knowing the half-life of an isotope can help a geologist establish the age of a rock or fossil.