Chpater 5 ONLINE REVEIW

Chapter 5 TEST - Online Review

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 1. The liver is one of major organs of the digestive tract.

____ 2. The large intestine is up to 7 meters long.

____ 3. Some vitamins are made by your body.

____ 4. In order to get the nutrients you need, you should eat a variety of foods.

____ 5. Breathing is the movement of the chest that brings air into the lungs and removes waste gases.

____ 6. When you exhale, oxygen waste is removed.

____ 7. The excretory system functions as a part of the urinary system.

____ 8. After blood has been filtered in the kidneys, the wastewater, or urine, moves through renal arteries to the bladder.

____ 9. The bladder is an elastic, muscular organ that holds urine until it leaves the body.

____ 10. A person cannot live with only one kidney.

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 11. In which part of the body does ingestion take place?

a.	intestines
b.	liver
c.	mouth
d.	stomach

____ 12. Ari learns that enzymes help break down food in the process of digestion.

From the diagram, what can be inferred about the role of enzymes in digestion?

a.	Enzymes split up molecules.
b.	Enzymes provide energy for cell development
c.	Enzymes remain unchanged during digestion.
d.	Enzymes push unused substances out of the body.

____ 13. Which organ is part of the digestive tract?

a.	esophagus
b.	liver
c.	pancreas
d.	teeth

____ 14. Which substance is secreted in the mouth to help break down starch into sugar?

a.	epiglottis
b.	fats
c.	peristalsis
d.	saliva

____ 15. In which organ does food mix with hydrochloric acid?

a.	esophagus
b.	intestine
c.	mouth
d.	stomach

____ 16. In which foods are amino acids found?

a.	carbohydrates
b.	fats
c.	proteins
d.	sugars

____ 17. Which is a characteristic of unsaturated fat?

a.	usually solid at room temperature
b.	usually a liquid at room temperature
c.	found in meats and animal products
d.	sometimes is water soluble

____ 18. Theresa’s brother is a vegetarian. He eats beans to obtain his protein. What important factor is he missing from his diet?

a.	essential amino acids
b.	incomplete proteins
c.	soluble vitamins
d.	unsaturated fat

____ 19. Laura and James are doing research about how food labels provide the consumer with nutritional information about the ingredients. They read this food label.

How many grams of protein are in two servings of this food?

a.	1.5 g
b.	8 g
c.	31 g
d.	550 g

____ 20. In which respiratory organ are the vocal cords located?

a.	bronchi
b.	esophagus
c.	larynx
d.	trachea

____ 21. What role does the hypothalamus play in the excretory system?

a.	It filters blood that contains waste from the cells.
b.	It eliminates waste gases through the circulatory system.
c.	It regulates salt and calcium levels in the blood.
d.	It monitors the amount of water in the blood.

____ 22. After an afternoon of playing soccer, Mia feels thirsty. She drink some water and feels much better. By drinking water, what is she doing for her body?

a.	getting rid of carbon dioxide
b.	getting rid of extra nutrients
c.	restoring calcium levels
d.	restoring homeostasis

____ 23. Nutritionists use a diagram called a food pyramid to explain the types of food people should eat. Why did they choose the shape of a pyramid to show food choices?

a.	The shape reminds people to eat less food listed on the bottom and more food from the top.
b.	The shape reminds people to eat more food listed on the bottom and less food from the top.
c.	The shape indicates that certain foods should be eaten only on certain days.
d.	The shape indicates that some food groups should be avoided by children.

____ 24. _____ is the process by which food is broken down so that nutrients can be used by the body.

a.	Absorption	c.	Elimination
b.	Digestion	d.	Ingestion

____ 25. Chemical digestion would not be possible without _____ that speed up the rate of chemical reactions in your body.

a.	enzymes	c.	nutrients
b.	molecules	d.	vitamins

____ 26. Chewing is an example of _____.

a.	absorption	c.	elimination
b.	chemical digestion	d.	mechanical digestion

____ 27. Which of the following is not an accessory organ in the digestive system?

a.	gallbladder	c.	salivary glands
b.	pancreas	d.	rectum

____ 28. Which accessory organ is important to mechanical digestion?

a.	liver	c.	gallbladder
b.	pancreas	d.	teeth

____ 29. Which substance in the mouth contains enzymes that help break down food?

a.	esophagus	c.	teeth
b.	saliva	d.	tongue

____ 30. What type of digestion takes place in the mouth?

a.	chemical	c.	both
b.	mechanical	d.	neither

____ 31. What type of digestion takes place in the esophagus?

a.	chemical	c.	both
b.	mechanical	d.	neither

____ 32. The stomach produces _____, a substance that protects the stomach from strong, digestive solutions like acids.

a.	bile	c.	mucus
b.	chyme	d.	saliva

____ 33. Food is changed into chyme in the _____.

a.	esophagus	c.	liver
b.	large intestine	d.	stomach

____ 34. Waves of muscle contractions, called _____, move food through the entire digestive tract.

a.	homeostasis	c.	saliva
b.	peristalsis	d.	villi

____ 35. Most digestion takes place in the _____.

a.	large intestine	c.	small intestine
b.	mouth	d.	stomach

____ 36. Nutrients are absorbed into blood vessels through _____ in the small intestine.

a.	bacteria	c.	insulin
b.	glands	d.	villi

____ 37. Bacteria living in the _____ produce vitamins and break down materials.

a.	large intestine	c.	small intestine
b.	liver	d.	stomach

____ 38. Organic nutrients are nutrients that contain _____.

a.	amino acids	c.	oxygen
b.	carbon	d.	vitamins

____ 39. Which of the following nutrients needs to be digested?

a.	minerals	c.	vitamins
b.	proteins	d.	water

____ 40. A molecule of _____ is made of building blocks called amino acids.

a.	carbohydrate	c.	protein
b.	fat	d.	water

____ 41. _____ are the main sources of energy for your body.

a.	Carbohydrates	c.	Vitamins
b.	Minerals	d.	Water

____ 42. Which of the following nutrients is used for replacement and repair of body cells and for growth?

a.	carbohydrates	c.	minerals
b.	proteins	d.	vitamins

____ 43. Which of the minerals in the figure shown is only required in very small amounts?

a.	calcium	c.	iron
b.	iodine	d.	phosphorus

____ 44. Use the figure shown to determine which of the following foods is high in iron.

a.	apples	c.	fish
b.	milk	d.	steak

____ 45. Use the figure to determine which of the following foods would not give you strong bones and teeth.

a.	cheese	c.	spinach
b.	eggs	d.	raisins

____ 46. Besides calcium, which of the following minerals is used in the largest amounts?

a.	copper	c.	potassium
b.	phosphorus	d.	sodium

____ 47. Which of these nutrients is the most important factor to survival?

a.	carbohydrates	c.	vitamins
b.	proteins	d.	water

____ 48. According to the figure shown, how do you lose most water throughout the day?

a.	exhaled air	c.	skin
b.	feces	d.	urine

____ 49. In the figure shown, which method accounts for about 20 percent of all the body’s water loss in a day?

a.	exhaled air	c.	skin
b.	feces	d.	urine

____ 50. According to the figure shown, you lose about three times as much water through urine than you do you through _____.

a.	exhaled air	c.	skin
b.	feces	d.	urine

____ 51. According to the figure shown, which food group should make up the largest part of your diet?

a.	bread, rice, and pasta	c.	meat and fish
b.	fruits and vegetables	d.	milk, yogurt, and cheese

____ 52. Vitamins and minerals are not found in this figure because the are _____.

a.	all made by your body	c.	found on their own pyramid
b.	found in the different food groups	d.	not that important

____ 53. Which food group in the figure shown provides the least protein?

a.	bread, rice, and pasta	c.	meat and fish
b.	fruits and vegetables	d.	milk, yogurt, and cheese

____ 54. The main function of the respiratory system is to bring oxygen into the body and remove _____.

a.	carbon dioxide	c.	glucose
b.	dust	d.	oxygen

____ 55. Vocal cords are found in your _____.

a.	bronchi	c.	pharynx
b.	larynx	d.	trachea

____ 56. The _____ is a tubelike passageway for food, liquids, and air.

a.	epiglottis	c.	pharynx
b.	nostril	d.	trachea

____ 57. _____ is the chemical reaction in cells that needs oxygen to release energy and produces carbon dioxide and water as wastes.

a.	Breathing	c.	Inhaling
b.	Exhaling	d.	Respiration

____ 58. Lungs are masses of _____, grapelike clusters of tiny sacs.

a.	alveoli	c.	cilia
b.	bronchioles	d.	hemoglobin

____ 59. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place between the alveoli and capillaries in the _____.

a.	bronchi	c.	lungs
b.	larynx	d.	trachea

____ 60. When carbon dioxide and other cellular wastes leave the body, they are carried by _____ from the body’s cells and into the lungs.

a.	blood	c.	capillaries
b.	bronchioles	d.	hemoglobin

____ 61. According to the figure shown, smokers are twice as likely to die of _____ than nonsmokers.

a.	chronic bronchitis	c.	heart disease
b.	emphysema	d.	lung cancer

____ 62. According to the figure shown, a woman who smokes is _____ times as likely to die of lung cancer than one who doesn’t.

a.	2	c.	11
b.	5	d.	23

____ 63. Which of the diseases listed in the figure shown are caused by swollen alveoli in the lungs, leading to difficulty breathing?

a.	chronic bronchitis	c.	heart disease
b.	emphysema	d.	lung cancer

____ 64. Asthma, emphysema, and lung cancer would be considered _____ diseases.

a.	digestive	c.	respiratory
b.	excretory	d.	skeletal

____ 65. If this figure showed the major organs for each excretory system, which would not be shown?

a.	the brain	c.	the large intestine
b.	the kidneys	d.	the lungs

____ 66. In the figure shown, which substance is removed by the digestive, respiratory, and urinary system?

a.	carbon dioxide	c.	undigested food
b.	salt	d.	water

____ 67. In the figure shown, the _____ removes excess water, metabolic waste, and salt from the body.

a.	digestive system	c.	skin
b.	respiratory system	d.	urinary system

____ 68. Which of the following functions does the urinary system perform?

a.	It removes wastes from the blood.
b.	It balances the amounts of salts and water in the body.
c.	It controls blood volume by removing excess water produced by body cells.
d.	All of these.

____ 69. Two bean-shaped _____ are the major organs of the urinary system.

a.	aortas	c.	kidneys
b.	bladders	d.	nephrons

____ 70. In approximately _____, all of the blood in your body passes through the kidneys.

a.	5 minutes	c.	1 hour
b.	30 minutes	d.	12 hours

____ 71. Kidneys are made of many _____ that filter water, sugar, salt, and wastes from the blood.

a.	nephrons	c.	ureters
b.	neurons	d.	veins

____ 72. Which of the following correctly describes the movement of wastes through the urinary system?

a.	Kidneys -> Bladder -> Ureter -> Urethra
b.	Kidneys -> Ureter -> Urethra -> Bladder
c.	Urethra -> Ureter -> Bladder -> Kidneys
d.	Kidneys -> Ureter -> Bladder -> Urethra

____ 73. When full, the bladder looks like a _____.

a.	inflated balloon	c.	small bean
b.	long, thin tube	d.	teacup

____ 74. If both kidneys fail, blood can filtered by an artificial kidney machine in a process called _____.

a.	dialysis	c.	excretion
b.	digestion	d.	homeostasis

____ 75. When you breathe, your lungs take in oxygen and remove ____.

a.	air	c.	nitrogen
b.	carbon dioxide	d.	nitrogen dioxide

____ 76. Cellular respiration requires supplying your body’s cells with ____.

a.	oxygen	c.	bone marrow
b.	blood	d.	enzymes

____ 77. The ____ is a tubelike passageway for both food and air.

a.	epiglottis	c.	pharynx
b.	larynx	d.	trachea

____ 78. Within the lungs, the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs between the ____ and the capillaries.

a.	trachea	c.	alveoli
b.	bronchi	d.	diaphragm

____ 79. The ____ prevents food or liquid from entering your trachea.

a.	alveoli	c.	epiglottis
b.	bronchi	d.	larynx

____ 80. People whose ____ don’t work may have to undergo dialysis.

a.	alveoli	c.	kidneys
b.	bladders	d.	lungs

____ 81. When urinary organs don’t work, all of the following occur EXCEPT ____.

a.	kidney damage	c.	accumulation of wastes
b.	homeostasis	d.	salt imbalance

____ 82. A disorder of the lungs called ____ is often an allergic reaction.

a.	asthma	c.	emphysema
b.	chronic bronchitis	d.	lung cancer

____ 83. ____ in cigarette smoke is the greatest contributor to lung cancer.

a.	Hydrogen	c.	Oxygen
b.	Nicotine	d.	Tar

____ 84. The main excretory organs of your body are the large intestine, kidney, lungs, and ____.

a.	heart	c.	pancreas
b.	ureter	d.	skin

____ 85. The organs of your urinary system are ____ organs.

a.	circulatory	c.	skeletal
b.	excretory	d.	respiratory

____ 86. A tube called the ____ leads from the bladder to the outside of the body.

a.	bladder	c.	ureter
b.	nephron	d.	urethra

Completion

Complete each statement.

Unscramble the letters to form the correct word for each definition.

87. tuntrnie—substance in food that provides energy and raw materials amounts ____________________

88. ryalxn—structure to which vocal cords are attached amounts ____________________

89. erhcaat— tube with cartilage, mucous membranes, and cilia amounts ____________________

90. hobirnc— branches of the trachea amounts ____________________

91. iavello— clusters of thin-walled air sacs in the lungs amounts ____________________

92. livil— fingerlike projections in the small intestine amounts ____________________

93. etreurs— tubes that lead from each kidney to the bladder amounts ____________________

94. sliranem— inorganic nutrients amounts ____________________

95. snedyik— major organs of urinary system amounts ____________________

96. rohspnen— filtering units of the kidneys amounts ____________________

97. yemzen— protein that speeds up chemical reactions amounts ____________________

98. derdabl— organ that holds urine until it is excreted amounts ____________________

99. nivimat— organic nutrient needed in small amounts ____________________

Matching

Match the organ with its location along the digestive tract as shown in this figure.

a.	Anus	e.	Rectum
b.	Esophagus	f.	Small intestine
c.	Large intestine	g.	Stomach
d.	Mouth

____ 100. Match the organ with its position in the figure shown.

____ 101. Match the organ with its position in the figure shown.

____ 102. Match the organ with its position in the figure shown.

____ 103. Match the organ with its position in the figure shown.

____ 104. Match the organ with its position in the figure shown.

____ 105. Match the organ with its position in the figure shown.

____ 106. Match the organ with its position in the figure shown.

Match each item with the correct description below.

a.	amino acids	f.	mechanical digestion
b.	villi	g.	minerals
c.	carbohydrates	h.	peristalsis
d.	chemical digestion	i.	proteins
e.	saliva

____ 107. main sources of energy; starches and sugars

____ 108. nutrients that repair and replace body cells

____ 109. subunits of proteins

____ 110. inorganic nutrients that regulate the body’s chemical reactions

____ 111. physical breakdown of food, as in chewing

____ 112. breakdown of food molecules for absorption

____ 113. enzyme-containing fluid in the mouth

____ 114. muscular contractions that move food

____ 115. fingerlike projections in the small intestine

Match each organ with its function.

a.	anus	f.	mouth
b.	esophagus	g.	pancreas
c.	salivary glands	h.	small intestine
d.	large intestine	i.	stomach
e.	liver

____ 116. place where food is ground mechanically into small pieces

____ 117. muscular tube that serves as passageway for food

____ 118. turns food into chyme

____ 119. major portion of all digestion takes place here

____ 120. produces bile

____ 121. make saliva

____ 122. produces substances that stop stomach acid action and enzymes that break down organic nutrients

____ 123. absorbs water from undigested food

____ 124. controls the release of solid waste

Short Answer

125.

Explain the difference between mechanical and chemical digestion of food.

126.

What is the difference between mechanical and chemical digestion?

127.

What is an accessory organ?

128.

How does the large intestine maintain homeostasis?

129.

Identify the six kinds of nutrients found in foods.

130.

Explain why fats are necessary nutrients.

131.

Explain the purpose of the mucus membranes and cilia in the trachea.

132.

How is air that enters the nose cleaned and filtered?

133.

Why is smoking is so dangerous to your health?

134.

Explain the dangers of kidney failure.

135. List four diseases or disorders of the respiratory system.

136. List the five major excretory organs.

137. List the four organic nutrients and the two inorganic nutrients.

138. Study the diagram of the respiratory system below. Then label each of the numbered structures.

139. Name the five food groups, and explain the relationship between diet and health.

140. Explain how homeostasis is maintained in the digestive system.

141. List three functions of the urinary system.

Using these tables from a can of yellow sweet corn, answer the following questions. All figures are for a 1/2-cup (118 mL) serving.

Nutritional Information		Percent of U.S. RDA
Protein	2 g		Protein	2
Carbohydrates	18 g		Vitamin A	2
Fat	0 g		Vitamin B1	2
Sodium	280 mg		Vitamin B2	2
Potassium	170 mg		Vitamin C	6
			Phosphorus	4
			Iron	2

142. What tells you that eating corn would not add to your cholesterol level?

143. What two nutrients in corn would help build bones and teeth?

144. What tells you that eating corn would help give you energy?

145. Complete the paragraph by filling in the blanks.

The main job of the a). ____________________ is to absorb water from undigested food. In doing so, the body returns large amounts of water to the body and maintains b) ______________. c) ____________________ slows down somewhat in the large intestine. Chyme may stay here as long as d) ____________________ days. During this time, excess water is absorbed back into the bloodstream. The remaining materials, consisting of e) ____________________ and bacteria, become more f) ____________________. Bacteria that live here feed on these undigested materials. This is a symbiotic relationship. The bacteria feed on these materials, and in return they produce several g) ____________________ that you need.

146. Descriptions of four diseases or disorders of the respiratory system are listed in the chart below. Complete the chart by writing the name of the disease or disorder next to its description.

Disorder	Description
	much mucus is produced; coughing harms cilia and bronchial tubes.
	major cause is smoking; leading type of cancer deaths
	wheezing; bronchial tubes contract quickly; often an allergic reaction
	main cause is smoking; alveoli in lungs lose their ability to expand and contract

147. Listed below are five activities of the respiratory system. Give a function of each.

1. cellular respiration

2. inhaling

3. air moves through nostrils

4. air enters the nasal cavity

5. exhaling

148. List three functions of the urinary system.

Essay

149.

Explain the process by which air reaches the lungs.

150. What are enzymes and how do they aid in digestion?

151. Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs.

Here is the link with photos for the Frog Dissection

http://us.geocities.com/sciencejanetc/7th_8th_grade/animal_kingdom/frog_dissection.html

Rat Dissection (4th and 6th Period)

Rat Dissection

PowerPoint Presentation, Rats

Back to Lab Schedule

Cool Virtual Dissections Link

Frog Dissection

Frog Dissection

Parts of this lab by E.S. Belasic

Pre-Lab Research:

• Study these websites before you start your dissection. Froguts and Net Frog
• All About Frogs gives all sorts of information on frogs

Objectives:

• to observe the external and internal anatomy of a frog.
• to determine the sex of a frog using internal anatomy.
• to view the body systems : epidermal, muscular, digestive, respiratory, circulatory, urogenital, and skeletal

Procedure:

External Anatomy:

• Sketch the dorsal side of your frog in Fig 1.
• Label the 4 directions : dorsal, ventral, anterior, posterior
• Identify the eyes, which have a non-moveable upper and lower lid, but can be covered with a nictitating membrane which serves to moisten the eye.
• Locate the tympanum behind each eye and label.
• Examine the external nares (nostrils). Insert a probe into the external nares and note that it protrudes from one of the paired small openings, the internal nares inside the mouth cavity.
• Label the tympanic membrane, eye, mouth, and external nares.
• Sketch the ventral side of your frog in Fig 2. Label the 4 directions: dorsal, ventral, anterior, and posterior.
• Which feet are webbed?__________________________
• The sex of a frog may be determined externally by examining the thumb pags on the front feet. The thumb pads of males are enlarged at the base as in the drawing. Determine the sex of your frog. _____________

• Open your frog's mouth very wide, cutting the angles of the jaw if necessary. Are there teeth on the lower jaw, upper jaw or both? _________________
• Identify the tongue attached to the lower jaw's anterior end.
• Find the Eustachian tube opening into the angle of the jaws. These tubes lead to the ears. Eustachian tubes equalize air pressure in the ears.
• Examine the maxillary teeth located along the rim of the upper jaw. Another set of teeth, the vomerine teeth, is present just behind the mid portion of the upper jaw.
• Locate the glottis, a slit through which air passes in and out of the trachea, the short tube from the glottis to the lungs.
• Identify the esophagus. which lies dorsal and posterior to the glottis and leads to the stomach.


• Pin your frog to the pan by placing pins through the 4 limbs


Internal Anatomy: Be Careful : DO NOT CUT TOO DEEPLY!

1. Take your scalpel or scissors and carefully make an incision from the throat to where the legs meet.
2. Make your second incision across the shoulders and across the lower abdomen.
3. Peel back the skin flaps
4. You may remove all the skin on your frog to examine the muscles.
5. Carefully cut through the muscles of the abdomen the same way you made the skin incisions and pin the muscles back.
6. Unlike humans, frogs do not store fat next to the skin. Frogs store fat for winter in fat bodies inside the body cavity. If your frog was collected late in the year, the body cavity may be full of these orange fat bodies. Does your frog have much stored fat?


7. Find the Liver and heart. This is the first layer of organs. How many lobes does the liver have? __________
8. At this point you may also see masses of eggs if you have a female.
9. Push the 3-lobed liver and heart to the left and expose the esophagus running back from the mouth to the large J-shaped stomach and small intestines.. The gall bladder can be seen on the back side of the liver. This is the second layer.
10. Cut the esophagus as close to the mouth as possible.
11. The stomach consists of a large anterior cardiac portion and smaller posterior pyloric portion which ends at the pyloric sphincter. This circular muscle opens and closes the bottom of the stomach.


The first portion of the small intestine, the duodenum is directly below the pyloric sphincter. Posterior to the duodenum lies the elongated and coiled ileum, which in turn, connects with the large intestine. The large intestine is easily identifiable as a marked expansion of the alimentary canal in the posterior region of the body cavity.

The gall bladder is located on the dorsal surface of the right lobe of the liver. The bile duct carries bile from the liver to the duodenum. The spleen is a roughly spherical dark organ which lies in the intestinal mesentery ventral to the kidneys.


12. Cut the large intestine as close to the anus as possible. Both ends of the canal have now been cut. Carefully remove the alimentary canal in one piece. Measure the length of each organ of the alimentary canal in centimeters and record them below.
• Esophagus
• Stomach
• Small intestines
• Large intestines


13. Find and remove the following : stomach, intestine, (yellowish) pancreas, (clear/green) gall bladder
14. Find and remove the following : heart, right and left lungs
15. Find and remove the following: (reddish) spleen, (dark brown) kidneys
16. Find and remove the following: ovaries or testes
17. When you are done, remove as much tissue as you can until the bones are exposed. Try to find the following: humerus, radioulna, femur, tibiofibula Data: (leave a 1/2 page for each figure and table)

Data:

Figure 1: Dorsal view of frog (d, v, a, p)
Figure 2: Ventral view of frog (d, v, a, p)

Figure 3: Musculature : deltoid, pectoralis, rectus abdominis, gastrocnemius

Analysis: Discuss how the organs of a frog are similar to the organs of a human.
Conclusion: 2-3 sentences on what you learned

7th Grade - Chapter 16 ONLINE REVIEW

7th Grade - Chapter 16 ONLINE REVIEW
True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
____ 1. The atmosphere is mostly oxygen.
____ 2. Light energy is used for photosynthesis.
____ 3. Cellular respiration occurs when temperatures cool water vapor in the atmosphere.
____ 4. The nitrogen cycle involves photosynthesis and respiration.
____ 5. Sugar molecules are broken down for energy, which is stored in fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.
Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
____ 6. Environmental factors in an ecosystem include nonliving, or abiotic, factors. _________________________
____ 7. Air is composed mostly of carbon dioxide. _________________________
____ 8. Water is the main ingredient in cell fluids. _________________________
____ 9. Heat energy and light energy determine latitude. _________________________
____ 10. A higher elevation causes temperature to increase. _________________________
____ 11. The motion of air causes currents. _________________________
____ 12. Earth's biosphere contains varying amounts of water, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and other minerals. _________________________
____ 13. The term biotic means “of the earth”. _________________________
____ 14. Nitrogen, as it is found in the air, can be used by plants and animals. _________________________
____ 15. Production of food from chemicals is called photosynthesis. _________________________
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 16. Why does burning fossil fuels create energy?
a.
Burning releases carbon dioxide and smoke.
b.
Fire creates more energy than any other element.
c.
The decayed remains are millions of years old.
d.
They are made of energy-rich, carbon-based molecules.
____ 17. Linda is studying the life of animals in the African plains. She learns how the wildlife depend on one another for survival.

What does the food chain show? Which of these organisms obtains the most energy?
a.
how energy decreases from one organism to another; the consumer
b.
how energy increases from one organism to another; the carnivore
c.
how energy is converted from one organism to another; the herbivore
d.
how energy is transferred from one organism to another; the producer
____ 18. What is the name for a deep crack in the ocean floor through which the heat of molten magma is released, and plants and organisms receive nutrients?
a.
hot spot
b.
hydrothermal vent
c.
magmatic ventilation
d.
volcanic rift
____ 19. Daniel heard a news report on television about global warming. The report showed these two graphs to support its conclusion.

Which statement can be determined by comparing the two graphs?
a.
As carbon dioxide decreases, the earth's temperature decreases.
b.
As carbon dioxide decreases, the earth's temperature increases.
c.
As carbon dioxide increases, the earth's temperature decreases.
d.
As carbon dioxide increases, the earth's temperature increases.
____ 20. Which could happen as a result of humans burning fossil fuels and trees?
a.
Extra carbon dioxide released into the air could cause heat from the sun to be trapped in the atmosphere, and the earth's temperature to rise.
b.
Extra carbon dioxide released into the air could cause the number of molecules in the atmosphere to decrease, causing the earth's temperature to rise.
c.
The increase in carbon dioxide could leave trees without enough oxygen, and they could begin to die.
d.
The increase in carbon dioxide could cause photosynthesis to increase, increasing the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
____ 21. How does temperature change from the base to the peak of a mountain?
a.
The decrease in elevation leads to more precipitation, which cools the molecules in the air and decreases the temperature.
b.
As elevation increases, the atmosphere becomes thinner and molecules cannot generate heat from their close, rapid movement.
c.
As elevation increases, the atmosphere becomes thinner and the sun heats fewer molecules in the air, creating cooler temperatures.
d.
The increase in elevation forces wind currents upward and cools the molecules in the air, creating cooler temperatures.
____ 22. How does the precipitation pattern on one side of a mountain, affect the environmental conditions on the opposite side of the mountain?
a.
Moisture from the sea is blocked by the mountain and cannot reach the other side, leaving it dry and desert-like.
b.
Moisture is lost as precipitation on one side, leaving the other side of the mountain dry and desert-like.
c.
Precipitation only flows down one side of the mountain, leaving the other side dry and desert-like.
d.
Wind currents are blocked by the mountain, and the moisture cannot reach the other side, leaving a desert-like environment.
____ 23. Humus forms from which of the following?
a.
a combination of soil, bacteria, and fungi
b.
a mixture of bacteria, mold, and worms
c.
the remnants of fossils, crushed rock, algae, and fertilizers
d.
the decayed remains of plants, animals, and animal waste
____ 24. Which element is important to all living organisms, but cannot be used directly from the air?
a.
carbon dioxide
b.
hydrogen
c.
nitrogen
d.
oxygen
____ 25. Which process converts light energy into the chemical energy in sugar molecules?
a.
biosynthesis
b.
chemosynthesis
c.
glucose synthesis
d.
photosynthesis
____ 26. Which process produces energy-rich nutrients from chemicals?
a.
biosynthesis
b.
chemosynthesis
c.
hydrosynthesis
d.
photosynthesis
____ 27. What will happen if a farmer only plants and harvests crops of cotton for seven years, without adding fertilizers or other nutrients to the soil? Why?
a.
Over a span of seven years, the use of insecticides specifically needed for cotton crops will make the soil infertile.
b.
Over seven years, natural disasters such as droughts and floods are more likely to occur, leaving the soil with insufficient nutrients.
c.
The soil will lose its nutrients and become infertile because cotton uses more of the soils nutrients than other crops.
d.
The soil will lose its nutrients and become infertile because the crops are harvested instead of left in the field to decay and return nitrogen to the soil.
____ 28. Which processes are involved in the water cycle?
a.
evaporation, condensation, precipitation
b.
evaporation, precipitation, vaporization
c.
evaporation, condensation, respiration
d.
precipitation, transpiration, vaporization
____ 29. Which of the following is a biotic factor?
a.
sunlight
c.
water
b.
worms
d.
climate
____ 30. Which process uses oxygen in plants, algae, and animals?
a.
transpiration
c.
chemosynthesis
b.
photosynthesis
d.
respiration
____ 31. Decaying matter found in soil is called ____.
a.
humus
c.
latitude
b.
consumer
d.
elevation
____ 32. During photosynthesis, light energy becomes ____ energy.
a.
soil life
c.
mechanical
b.
chemical
d.
pyramid
____ 33. Nitrogen is a necessary ingredient of ____.
a.
white blood cells
c.
fats
b.
carbohydrates
d.
proteins
____ 34. Which of the following eats consumers?
a.
carnivore
c.
bacteria
b.
herbivore
d.
fungi
____ 35. Nitrogen in the soil is used by ____.
a.
plants
c.
both a and b
b.
animals
d.
neither a nor b
____ 36. The chemical energy in sugar molecules can be stored or used in which of the following?
a.
carbohydrates
c.
proteins
b.
fats
d.
all of the above
____ 37. Which is a model of feeding relationships?
a.
protein building
c.
food web
b.
food map
d.
sugar molecules
____ 38. As you move upward, from level to level, in an energy pyramid, energy ____.
a.
decreases
c.
stays at the same level
b.
increases
d.
is destroyed
Completion
Complete each statement.
39. ____________________ factors are nonliving.
40. Carbon dioxide is used by plants for _________________________.
41. ____________________ are not capable of photosynthesis.
42. Average weather conditions over time are called ____________________.
43. Respiration ____________________ oxygen and ____________________ carbon dioxide.
44. Nitrogen fixation is performed by ____________________.
45. The bottom layer of an energy pyramid represents ____________________, the first feeding level.
46. Energy is not recycled, but is ____________________ from one form to another.
47. In a food chain, the lowest level of consumers eat ____________________.
48. Overlapping food chains make a food ____________________.
49. average weather conditions over time ____________________
50. environmental factors that include soil, sunlight, and air ____________________
51. organisms that are not capable of photosynthesis ____________________
52. made of overlapping food chains ____________________
53. gas used during photosynthesis ____________________
54. decaying matter found in soil ____________________
55. bacteria in hydrothermal vent communities use this process to produce food ____________________
56. the air that surrounds Earth ____________________
57. a model that shows comparative energy levels for different feeding levels ____________________
58. place where humus is found ____________________
59. An important biological process: ____________________
Correctly complete each sentence by underlining the best of the three choices in parentheses.
60. Plants, algae, animals, and bacteria use oxygen for ____________________ (transpiration, respiration, condensation).
61. Temperature depends on ____________________ (sunlight, rainfall, wind), which depends on latitude.
62. ____________________ (Chemosynthesis, Photosynthesis, Humus) is the production of food without light energy.
Matching
Match the environmental factor with its classification, abiotic or biotic.
a.
abiotic
b.
biotic
____ 63. sunlight
____ 64. mammals
____ 65. water
____ 66. soil
____ 67. temperature
____ 68. bacteria
____ 69. fungi
____ 70. air
____ 71. humus
____ 72. climate
Match the description with the correct item below. Some items may not be used.
a.
latitude
h.
fertilizers
b.
elevation
i.
air
c.
climate
j.
abiotic factors
d.
producers
k.
sugar
e.
nitrogen fixation
l.
water
f.
energy
m.
consumers
g.
biotic factors
____ 73. cell fluids are mostly this compound
____ 74. distance from the equator
____ 75. high energy molecules made from photosynthesis
____ 76. living ecosystem components
____ 77. changing nitrogen gas to usable nitrogen in the soil
____ 78. distance above sea level
____ 79. required for recycling matter
____ 80. the first level of the food chain
____ 81. applied to replace soil nitrogen in crop fields, lawns, and gardens
____ 82. average weather over time
Match the following types of energy with the phrase that best applies.
a.
light energy
d.
high energy sugar
b.
heat energy
e.
sulfur molecules
c.
chemical energy
____ 83. used in photosynthesis
____ 84. stored in sugar molecules
____ 85. used for warmth
____ 86. product of photosynthesis
____ 87. chemosynthesis
Short Answer
88.
Explain the difference between biotic and abiotic factors, providing two or more examples of each.
89.
Maria is going to present a report about weather to her class. How can she describe in three steps the process by which wind is created?
90.
Draw a basic diagram of the water cycle.
91.
Discuss two ways that plants get the nitrogen they need. How do animals get the nitrogen they need?
92.
How do plants and algae use carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere? Discuss two ways CO2 is released into the atmosphere in the carbon cycle.
93.
Describe the relationship between CO2 and oxygen in the process of photosynthesis. How does this benefit both plants and animals?
94.
Draw a basic diagram of a food web. You may use words or pictures.
95.
Choose two abiotic factors in Earth's environment and discuss the role they play in making life possible.
96.
Discuss how oxygen and nitrogen in the air help to make life possible.
97.
Discuss why organisms that live near the equator might be different from those that live near the Earth's poles.
98. Number these food chain steps in the correct order using the blanks provided.
a. omnivores and carnivores
b. producers
c. herbivores
99. Number these gases in order from the one with the greatest amount in the atmosphere to the one with the least amount in the atmosphere.
a. oxygen
b. nitrogen
c. other gases
d. carbon dioxide
100. List the three main components of the water cycle and provide a brief description of each.
101. If nitrogen in the atmosphere is not in a form plants can use, how do they get nitrogen? What is this process called?
102. Why are the numbers of organisms smaller at high levels of an energy pyramid?
103. What types of organisms are found in soil?
104. Explain how soil can be both biotic and abiotic.
105. Using the carbon cycle as an example, explain how Earth's biosphere recycles materials over and over.
106. How could you use a graduated cylinder, a stopper, water, and sunlight to show the fundamentals of the water cycle?
107. Complete the carbon cycle concept map using the correct terms from the chapter.

108. What are the differences between abiotic factors and biotic factors? Give examples of both.
109. In an energy pyramid with three levels (first level producers, second level consumers, and third-level consumers), what percent of the energy from level one (producers) would eventually be transferred to the top level (level three consumers) of organisms?
110. List two biotic components and two abiotic components of soil.
111. What is the potential danger from having too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
112. Explain how temperature is responsible for wind.
Essay
113. Which abiotic factors determine what lives in an environment?
114. Explain how elevation affects temperature.
115. Explain the steps of a food chain. Use examples for each level.
116. Discuss two ways CO2 can be dispensed into the atmosphere.
117. Explain how the process of cellular respiration is important to life processes

6th Grade - Chapter 13 ONLINE REVIEW

6th Grade - Chapter 13 ONLINE REVIEW
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Jennifer is preparing a diagram about plate tectonics.

How should Jennifer label the upper region of the diagram?
a.
lithosphere
b.
mantle
c.
Pangaea
d.
sediment
____ 2. According to the theory of seafloor spreading, what is forced upward through cracks in the seafloor?
a.
granite
b.
magma
c.
steam
d.
water
____ 3. Seafloor spreading creates which type of boundary?
a.
colliding
b.
convergent
c.
divergent
d.
transform
____ 4. What do the rigid plates of the lithosphere move around on?
a.
the asthenosphere
b.
the crust
c.
the mantle
d.
the ocean
____ 5. Steven is looking at a partially completed drawing of two continental plates that are about to collide.

What will happen when the plates collide?
a.
One plate will plunge beneath the other, less dense one.
b.
The plates will both plunge downward, into the mantle.
c.
The crust will be pushed up, forming a mountain range.
d.
The crust will be crushed, forming a broad plain.
____ 6. When is energy released in the form of seismic waves?
a.
when a fault-block mountain experiences erosion
b.
when magma cools and moves deeper into the mantle
c.
when rocks in Earth's crust break and move
d.
when ocean waves strike the shoreline
____ 7. Which of the following are often formed when an ocean plate converges with a continental plate?
a.
magnetic fields
b.
mid-ocean ridges
c.
lithosphere
d.
volcanoes
____ 8. When two plates slide past one another without converging or diverging, which fault occurs?
a.
normal
b.
reverse
c.
rift
d.
strike-slip
____ 9. During World War I, German scientists developed a new way to detect submarines. Building on this technology, scientists working in the 1940s and 1950s used which type of waves to map large areas of the ocean floor?
a.
radiant
b.
radio
c.
seismic
d.
sound
____ 10. Vicente heats a pan of water to boil an egg. As the water warms, it begins to move in a cycle called a convection current. How do scientists think this cycle relates to plate tectonics?
a.
The cycle explains how water cools.
b.
The cycle explains why water boils.
c.
A similar cycle causes plates to move.
d.
A similar cycle causes erosion.
____ 11. The San Andreas Fault in California is part of which type of plate boundary?
a.
colliding
b.
convergent
c.
divergent
d.
transform
____ 12. Which is a result of compression forces acting on plates?
a.
changes in magnetic fields
b.
folding of rock layers
c.
strike-slip faults appear
d.
rift valleys appear
____ 13. Why are earthquakes common at convergent boundaries?
a.
the collision of continental plates
b.
the force of plates being pulled apart
c.
the absence of subduction
d.
the presence of convection currents
____ 14. The youngest rocks on the ocean floor are located ____.
a.
near continents
c.
far from mid-ocean ridges
b.
at mid-ocean ridges
d.
near Asia
____ 15. The crust and upper mantle make up Earth's ____.
a.
lithosphere
c.
core
b.
asthenosphere
d.
continents
____ 16. Scientists have observed that the plates move at rates ranging from 1 cm to 12 cm per ____.
a.
century
c.
day
b.
decade
d.
year
____ 17. Plates of the lithosphere float on the ____.
a.
crust
c.
core
b.
asthenosphere
d.
atmosphere
____ 18. The result of plate movement can be seen at ____.
a.
abyssal plains
c.
plate centers
b.
ocean margins
d.
plate boundaries
____ 19. The ____ are mountains formed by the collision of the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
a.
Alps
c.
Himalaya
b.
Rockies
d.
Appalachians
____ 20. The presence of the same ____ on several continents supports the hypothesis of continental drift.
a.
fossils
c.
neither a nor b
b.
rocks
d.
both a and b
____ 21. The hypothesis that continents have slowly moved to their current locations is called ____.
a.
continental drift
c.
magnetic reversal
b.
continental slope
d.
convection
____ 22. Plates move apart at ____ boundaries.
a.
convergent
c.
divergent
b.
stable
d.
transform
____ 23. The alignment of iron minerals in rocks when they are formed reflects the fact that Earth's ____ has reversed itself several times in the past.
a.
magnetic field
c.
asthenosphere
b.
core
d.
gravity
____ 24. A lack of explanation for continental drift prevented many scientists from accepting that a single supercontinent called ____ once existed.
a.
Glomar
c.
Pangaea
b.
Glossopteris
d.
Wegener
____ 25. The Glomar Challenger provided support for the theory of plate tectonics by providing ____.
a.
high-altitude photos of existing continents
b.
samples of plant life from mid-ocean ridges
c.
samples of older rock found far from mid-ocean ridges
d.
direct measurements of the movement of continents
____ 26. Plates slide past one another at ____.
a.
subduction zones
c.
convection currents
b.
transform boundaries
d.
divergent boundaries
____ 27. The boundary between two plates moving together is called a ____.
a.
divergent boundary
c.
transform boundary
b.
convergent boundary
d.
lithosphere
____ 28. Seafloor spreading occurs because ____.
a.
new material is being added to the asthenosphere
b.
earthquakes break apart the ocean floor
c.
sediments accumulate at the area of spreading
d.
molten material beneath Earth's crust rises to the surface
____ 29. While studying the ocean floor, scientists found ____ bands of magnetism.
a.
plastic
c.
no
b.
alternating
d.
rectangular
____ 30. Continental drift states that continents have moved ____ to their current location.
a.
vertically
c.
quickly
b.
slowly
d.
very little
____ 31. Wegener believed that the continents originally broke apart about ____ years ago.
a.
200 million
c.
400 million
b.
300 million
d.
500 million
____ 32. A fossil plant that helps support the theory of continental drift is ____.
a.
Mesosaurus
c.
Glomar
b.
Glossopteris
d.
Pangaea
____ 33. Matching ____ on different continents are evidence for continental drift.
a.
river systems
c.
weather patterns
b.
rock structures
d.
wind systems
____ 34. Bands of rock on the seafloor showing alternating magnetic orientation indicate Earth's magnetic field has ____.
a.
reversed itself in the past
c.
become stronger
b.
weakened
d.
remained the same
____ 35. A ____ is a sensitive device used to detect magnetic fields on the seafloor.
a.
seismometer
c.
Glomar
b.
geologist's compass
d.
magnetometer
____ 36. ____ currents inside Earth might drive plate motion.
a.
Vertical
c.
Horizontal
b.
Convection
d.
none of the above
____ 37. Scientists believe that differences in ____ cause hot, plasticlike rock in the asthenosphere to rise toward Earth's surface.
a.
density
c.
weight
b.
magnetism
d.
composition
____ 38. In order to complete a convection current, the rising material must eventually ____ Earth.
a.
stop inside
c.
sink back into
b.
cool
d.
warm
____ 39. The Great Rift Valley in Africa is a ____.
a.
mid-ocean ridge
c.
convergent boundary
b.
divergent boundary
d.
transform boundary
____ 40. The Andes mountain range of South America was formed at a ____.
a.
convergent boundary
c.
hot spot
b.
divergent boundary
d.
transform boundary
____ 41. Active volcanoes are most likely to form at ____.
a.
transform boundaries
b.
divergent boundaries
c.
the center of continents
d.
convergent oceanic-continental boundaries
____ 42. ____ are formed when two continental plates collide.
a.
Volcanoes
c.
Mountain ranges
b.
Strike-slip faults
d.
Rift valleys
____ 43. The ____ is (are) an example of a transform boundary.
a.
Appalachian Mountains
c.
Mid-Atlantic Ridge
b.
Himalaya
d.
San Andreas Fault
____ 44. A ____ forms where two oceanic plates collide.
a.
hot spot
c.
transform boundary
b.
subduction zone
d.
rift valley

Figure 10-1
____ 45. According to Figure 10-1, what type of plate boundary occurs between the North American Plate and the Eurasian Plate?
a.
transform boundary
b.
divergent boundary
c.
convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary
d.
convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary
____ 46. According to Figure 10-1, what type of plate boundary occurs between the Nazca Plate and the South American Plate?
a.
convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary
b.
convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary
c.
convergent continental-continental plate boundary
d.
transform boundary
____ 47. The seafloor spreading theory was proposed by ____
a.
Alfred Wegener.
c.
Abraham Ortelius.
b.
Harry Hess.
d.
Carl Sagan.
____ 48. As Earth's plates move apart at some boundaries, they collide at others, forming ____
a.
mountains and volcanoes.
c.
strike-slip faults.
b.
ocean basins.
d.
both a and b.
____ 49. The youngest rocks in the ocean floor are located at the mid-ocean ____
a.
volcanoes.
c.
trenches.
b.
basins.
d.
ridges.
____ 50. The results of plate movement can be seen at ____
a.
rift valleys.
c.
plate centers.
b.
plate boundaries.
d.
both a and b.
____ 51. The ____ are forming where the Indo-Australian plate collides into the Eurasian plate.
a.
Andes Mountain Range
c.
Himalayas
b.
Rocky Mountains
d.
Appalachian Mountains
____ 52. The presence of the same ____ on several continents supports the idea of continental drift.
a.
fossils
c.
neither a nor b
b.
rocks
d.
both a and b
____ 53. Continental drift occurs because of ____
a.
seafloor spreading.
c.
magnetic reversal.
b.
Pangaea.
d.
earthquakes.
____ 54. The cycle of heating, rising, cooling, and sinking is called a ____
a.
subduction zone.
c.
convection current.
b.
convergent boundary.
d.
conduction current.
____ 55. Oceanic plates are pushed down into the upper mantle in ____
a.
convection currents.
c.
strike-slip faults.
b.
subduction zones.
d.
divergent boundaries.
____ 56. The hypothesis that continents have moved slowly to their current locations is called ____
a.
continental drift.
c.
magnetism.
b.
continental slope.
d.
convection.
____ 57. Plates move apart at ____ boundaries.
a.
convergent
c.
divergent
b.
transform
d.
magnetic
____ 58. Ocean floor rocks are ____ continental rocks.
a.
more eroded than
c.
younger than
b.
older than
d.
the same age as
____ 59. The alignment of iron-bearing minerals in rocks when they formed reflects the fact that Earth's ____ has reversed itself several times in its past.
a.
magnetic field
c.
asthenosphere
b.
core
d.
gravity
____ 60. The lack of an explanation for continental drift prevented many scientists from believing a single supercontinent called ____ once existed.
a.
Glomar
c.
Pangaea
b.
Glossopteris
d.
Mesosaurus
____ 61. Scientists aboard the Glomar Challenger added to the evidence for the theory of seafloor spreading by providing ____
a.
high altitude photos of existing continents.
b.
samples of plant life from different locations.
c.
samples of rock from different locations.
d.
direct measurements of the movement of continents.
____ 62. Where plates slide past one another, ____ occur.
a.
volcanoes
c.
island arcs
b.
earthquakes
d.
ocean trenches
____ 63. The places between plates moving together are called ____
a.
divergent boundaries.
c.
strike-slip faults.
b.
convergent boundaries.
d.
lithospheres.
____ 64. Seafloor spreading occurs because ____
a.
new material is being added to the asthenosphere.
b.
earthquakes break apart the ocean floor.
c.
sediments accumulate on the ocean floor.
d.
hot, less-dense material below Earth's crust is forced upward toward the surface.
____ 65. Studying the ocean floor, scientists found rocks showing magnetic ____
a.
weakening.
c.
bonds.
b.
reversal.
d.
poles.
Completion
Complete each statement.
66. plasticlike layer of Earth's surface below the lithosphere ____________________
67. cycle of heating, rising, cooling, and sinking ____________________
68. theory that states that Earth's crust and upper mantle are broken into sections, which move around on a special layer of the mantle ____________________
69. area where an oceanic plate goes down into the mantle ____________________
70. plate boundary that occurs when two plates slide past one another ____________________
71. place where two plates move together ____________________
72. rigid layer of Earth's surface made up of the crust and a part of the upper mantle ____________________
73. sensing device that detects magnetic fields, helping to confirm seafloor spreading ____________________
74. one large landmass hypothesized to have broken apart about 200 million years ago into continents ____________________
75. hypothesis that the continents have moved slowly to their current locations ____________________
76. boundary between two plates that are moving apart ____________________
77. sections of Earth's crust and upper mantle ____________________
78. largest layer of Earth's surface, composed mostly of silicon, oxygen, magnesium, and iron ____________________
79. outermost layer of Earth's surface ____________________
80. where rocks on opposite sides of a fault move in opposite directions or in the same direction at different rates ____________________
81. The theory that describes Earth's crust and upper mantle as being broken into sections is called ____________________.
82. The theory of ____________________ was shown to be correct by age evidence and magnetic clues.
83. ____________________, occurring in the mantle, are thought to be the force behind plate tectonics.
84. Earth's plasticlike layer is the ____________________.
85. Earth's ____________________ move around on a special layer of the mantle.
86. The main lines of evidence for ____________________ are fossil, rock, and climate clues, and the theory of seafloor spreading.
87. The rigid part of the plates of the ____________________ are made of oceanic crust or continental crust and upper mantle.
88. The name ____________________ means “all land.”
Matching
Match each term with the correct statement below.
a.
seafloor
c.
continents
b.
Pangaea
d.
lithosphere
____ 89. Alfred Wegener believed that the ______ were once joined.
____ 90. The name ______ comes from two words that mean "all land."
____ 91. The Glomar Challenger gathered information about rocks on the _____.
____ 92. The crust and upper mantle make up the _____.
Match each term with the correct statement below.
a.
mid-ocean ridge
d.
subduction zone
b.
convergent boundary
e.
continental drift
c.
asthenosphere
____ 93. Earth's thick, plasticlike layer is the _____.
____ 94. Plates move together at a(n) _____.
____ 95. One plate is forced under another in a(n) _____.
____ 96. A(n) _____ is an underwater mountain chain.
____ 97. The main points of evidence for _____ are fossils, rocks, and climate.
Short Answer
98.
What evidence supports Alfred Wegener's theory of continental drift?
99.
Changes in Earth's magnetic field are preserved in rock forming on both sides of mid-ocean ridges. Why does this support the theory of seafloor spreading?
100.
What is the difference between a convergent and a divergent plate boundary?
101.
In what direction does warmer material move in a convection current?
102.
Why did Alfred Wegener believe that all of the continents once had been joined?
103.
Why are there few volcanoes in the Himalaya?
104.
Glacial deposits often form at a high latitude near the poles. Explain why glacial deposits have been found in Africa.
105.
How were the Andes mountain range, the Himalayas, and the Appalachian Mountains similarly formed?
106.
How were the Andes mountain range and the Himalayas formed differently?
107.
Explain how research from the Glomar Challenger helped scientists support the theory of seafloor spreading.
108.
Figure 10-2 shows the puzzlelike fit of South America and Africa. Explain some of the other evidence used to support the hypothesis of continental drift.
\
Figure 10-2
109.
What new technology was used to map the seafloor beginning in the 1940s and 1950s?
110.
How does a mid-ocean ridge form?
111. Study the following diagram. Then label the parts of Earth's surface.

112. Compare and contrast divergent, convergent, and transform plate boundaries.
113. Describe how convection currents might be the cause of plate tectonics.
114. Why are new ideas often rejected, and what is needed before new ideas should be accepted?
115. What is the difference between a convergent and a divergent plate boundary?
116. What happens to warmer material in a convection current?
117. What observation led Albert Wegener to develop the hypothesis of continental drift?
118. Which part of Earth's structure is about 100 km thick?
119. How were the Andes Mountain Range, the Himalayas, and the islands of Japan formed in the same way?
120. How were the Andes Mountain Range, the Himalayas, and the islands of Japan formed differently?
121. What causes new material to form at a mid-ocean ridge on the ocean floor?
122. Why are there few volcanoes in the Himalayas?
123. Glacial deposits often form at a high latitude near the poles. Explain why glacial deposits have been found in Africa.
124. Why would the fossil of an ocean fish found on two different continents NOT be good evidence of continental drift?
Essay
125. Explain how research from the Glomar Challenger helped scientists support the theory of seafloor spreading.
126. Since new crust is constantly being added, why does Earth's